HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. Why is it most important to start intravenous infusions in the upper extremities rather than the lower extremities of adults?
- A. Superficial veins are more easily found in the feet and ankles.
- B. A decreased flow rate could lead to thrombosis formation.
- C. It is more challenging to move a cannulated extremity when using the leg or foot.
- D. Veins in the feet and ankles are located deep, making the procedure more painful.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most critical reason for initiating intravenous infusions in the upper extremities of adults is to reduce the risk of thrombosis (B). Venous return is typically better in the upper extremities, decreasing the likelihood of thrombus formation, which could be life-threatening if dislodged. Although superficial veins are easily found in the feet and ankles (A), this is not the primary reason for choosing the upper extremities. Handling a leg or foot with an IV (C) is not significantly more challenging than handling an arm or hand. The depth of veins in the feet and ankles (D) does not primarily determine the site for IV placement.
2. The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.
3. The nurse is attempting to pass an indwelling catheter in an adult male and is having difficulty. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse?
- A. Remove the catheter and reinsert it with the client positioned differently.
- B. Try a straight catheter instead.
- C. Try a smaller catheter.
- D. Discontinue the procedure and notify the physician.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: If resistance is encountered, the nurse should discontinue the procedure and notify the physician, as this may indicate an obstruction.
4. The healthcare professional retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer to the client? (Enter the numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth)
- A. 0.8 mL
- B. 0.75 mL
- C. 0.7 mL
- D. 0.9 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, divide the ordered dose (3 mg) by the concentration (4 mg/mL). 3 mg รท 4 mg/mL = 0.75 mL. Rounding to the nearest tenth, the correct dose to administer is 0.8 mL.
5. Which client care task requires the nurse to wear barrier gloves as mandated by the Standard Precautions protocol?
- A. Removing the empty food tray from a client with a urinary catheter.
- B. Washing and combing the hair of a client with a fractured leg in traction.
- C. Administering oral medications to a cooperative client with a wound infection.
- D. Emptying the urinary catheter drainage bag for a client with Alzheimer's disease.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because emptying a urinary catheter drainage bag exposes the nurse to body fluids, necessitating the use of barrier gloves as per Standard Precautions to prevent potential infection transmission.
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