Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls.
• C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin D supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.

2. After informing an older client that an IV line needs to be inserted, the client becomes very apprehensive, loudly expressing a dislike for all healthcare providers and nurses. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask the client to remain quiet so the procedure can be performed safely.
• B. Concentrate on completing the insertion as efficiently as possible.
• C. Calmly reassure the client that the discomfort will be temporary.
• D. Tell the client a joke as a means of distraction from the procedure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should respond by calmly reassuring the client that the discomfort from the IV insertion will be temporary. By providing reassurance and addressing the client's concerns, the nurse can help reduce the client's apprehension and create a more supportive environment for the procedure.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's weight increases by 1 kg in 24 hours.
• B. The client's peritoneal effluent is cloudy.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client's peritoneal effluent is clear and pale yellow.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cloudy peritoneal effluent (B) is a sign of infection and should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. It indicates the presence of peritonitis, a severe complication that requires prompt intervention. Weight gain (A) may indicate fluid overload but is not as urgent as a potential infection. Elevated blood pressure (C) is a common finding in clients with kidney disease and needs monitoring but does not require immediate reporting. Clear and pale yellow effluent (D) is a normal finding and does not raise immediate concerns.

4. A client is admitted with a stage four pressure ulcer that has a black, hardened surface and a light-pink wound bed with malodorous green drainage. Which dressing is best for the nurse to use first?

• A. Hydrogel dressing.
• B. Exudate absorber.
• C. Wet-to-moist dressing.
• D. Transparent adhesive film.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best initial dressing for a stage four pressure ulcer with necrotic tissue is a wet-to-moist dressing. This dressing helps to provide moisture, soften necrotic tissue, and prepare the wound bed for healing. It promotes autolytic debridement and can help manage malodorous drainage. Once the necrotic tissue is loosened, other advanced dressings like hydrogel or alginate may be used in the wound bed to facilitate healing.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

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