HESI RN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Test
1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of osteoporosis. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Increase dietary intake of calcium-rich foods.
- B. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls.
- C. Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight.
- D. Increase intake of vitamin D supplements.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding activities that increase the risk of falls (B) is the most crucial instruction for a client with osteoporosis to prevent fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more susceptible to fractures from falls. While increasing calcium intake (A) is important for bone health, avoiding falls takes precedence to prevent immediate harm. Avoiding prolonged exposure to sunlight (C) is not directly related to osteoporosis management. Increasing vitamin D supplements (D) is beneficial for bone health, but fall prevention is more critical in this scenario.
2. The nurse determines that a postoperative client's respiratory rate has increased from 18 to 24 breaths/min. Based on this assessment finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to increase ambulation in the room.
- B. Offer the client a high-carbohydrate snack for energy.
- C. Force fluids to thin the client's pulmonary secretions.
- D. Determine if pain is causing the client's tachypnea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate can be a sign of various issues postoperatively, including pain. Assessing and managing pain is crucial as it can lead to tachypnea. Pain, anxiety, and fluid accumulation in the lungs can all contribute to an increased respiratory rate. Therefore, determining if pain is causing the tachypnea is the most important intervention to address the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation, offering snacks, or forcing fluids are not the priority in this situation as pain assessment takes precedence in managing the increased respiratory rate.
3. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?
- A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
- B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
- C. The client reports shortness of breath.
- D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most indicative of this diagnosis?
- A. Epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
- B. Abdominal pain with guarding.
- C. Nausea and vomiting.
- D. Increased bowel sounds in all quadrants.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Epigastric pain that radiates to the back (A) is the hallmark assessment finding of acute pancreatitis. The pancreas lies retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen, so inflammation often causes severe epigastric pain that radiates through to the back. While abdominal pain with guarding (B), nausea and vomiting (C), and increased bowel sounds (D) can also be present in acute pancreatitis, they are less specific and may be seen in various other gastrointestinal conditions. Therefore, the most indicative finding for acute pancreatitis is epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
5. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's intravenous infusion pump?
- A. 13 ml/hour.
- B. 63 ml/hour.
- C. 80 ml/hour.
- D. 125 ml/hour.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct calculation involves dividing the total volume by the total time. In this case, 250 ml/4 hours = 63 ml/hour. The dose of KCl is not used in the calculation as the focus is on the rate of infusion over the specified time period. Choice A (13 ml/hour) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (80 ml/hour) and Choice D (125 ml/hour) are also incorrect calculations and do not match the correct rate of infusion required.
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