Nursing Elites

1. Which nonverbal action should be implemented to demonstrate active listening?

• A. Sit facing the individual.
• B. Cross arms and legs.
• C. Avoid eye contact.
• D. Lean back in the chair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To demonstrate active listening effectively, it is essential to display open and engaging body language. Sitting facing the individual helps convey attentiveness and a willingness to listen. Maintaining eye contact further enhances the connection and shows respect and interest in the conversation. Crossing arms and legs can create a barrier and signal defensiveness or disinterest. Avoiding eye contact may suggest a lack of engagement or attentiveness. Leaning back in the chair can indicate relaxation but might be perceived as disengagement. Therefore, the most appropriate nonverbal action to demonstrate active listening is to sit facing the individual and maintain eye contact.

2. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?

• A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the client from the bed to a chair.
• B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
• C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
• D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist the client to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.

3. How should the nurse prepare the body of a deceased adult for transfer to the mortuary?

• A. Leave the body as is, no preparation needed
• B. Bathe the body and place ID tags on it
• C. Remove dentures before bathing the body
• D. Position the body with its head down and arms folded on its chest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When preparing the body of a deceased adult for transfer to the mortuary, it is essential to bathe the body and place identification tags on it. This process ensures proper identification and respectful care of the deceased individual.

4. When assessing for orthostatic hypotension during blood pressure measurement, what action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Position the client supine for a few minutes
• B. Assist the client to stand at the bedside
• C. Apply the blood pressure cuff securely
• D. Record the client’s pulse rate and rhythm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing for orthostatic hypotension, the initial step is to position the client supine for a few minutes. This allows the body to adjust to the supine position before assessing blood pressure changes that may indicate orthostatic hypotension. By observing the blood pressure after the client has rested supine, the nurse can accurately assess for any drop in blood pressure upon standing, which is indicative of orthostatic hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the initial step in assessing for orthostatic hypotension, which is ensuring the client is positioned correctly to detect blood pressure changes upon standing.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

Similar Questions