Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg.
• B. The client gains 1 kg in 24 hours.
• C. The client's potassium level is 5.5 mEq/L.
• D. The client's weight decreases by 0.5 kg in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.

2. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

• A. Assess the client for confusion and reteach the procedure
• B. Check the urine for color and texture
• C. Empty the urinal contents into the 24-hour collection container
• D. Discard the contents of the urinal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

3. When a male client mentions his foot is hurting while watching TV with his wife, how should the nurse respond?

• A. Ask him to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10.
• B. Encourage him to wait until bedtime for the pill to help him sleep.
• C. Attend to an acutely ill client's needs first as the client is laughing.
• D. Instruct him in the use of deep breathing exercises for pain control.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client to rate his pain on a scale of 1 to 10. This helps the nurse assess the intensity of the pain and determine the appropriate pain medication. Encouraging him to wait or attend to another client's needs first are incorrect because pain management should be addressed promptly. Instructing on deep breathing exercises may be helpful but is not the initial step in addressing acute pain.

4. Which action should the nurse implement when using the confrontation technique during a vision exam?

• A. Use an ophthalmoscope to observe the client's pupil constriction when a strong light is shone on it.
• B. Stand behind the client and direct the client to report when an object enters the peripheral field of vision.
• C. Display a series of four cards with printing of varying sizes to the client and ask which card the client sees most clearly.
• D. Sit facing the client, look directly at the client's face, and move an object inward from the periphery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a vision exam, the confrontation technique is used to assess peripheral vision. By sitting facing the client and moving an object inward from the periphery while looking directly at the client's face, the nurse allows the client to indicate when the object enters the visual field. This method helps in determining the extent of the client's peripheral vision accurately. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not describe the appropriate method for using the confrontation technique during a vision exam. Choice A involves using an ophthalmoscope to observe pupil constriction, choice B involves testing the peripheral field of vision without the confrontation technique, and choice C describes the Snellen eye chart test for visual acuity, which is not related to the confrontation technique.

5. A male client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) develops cryptococcal meningitis and tells the nurse he does not want to be resuscitated if his breathing stops. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client's request in the medical record.
• B. Ask the client if this decision has been discussed with his healthcare provider.
• C. Inform the client that a written, notarized advance directive is required to withhold resuscitation efforts.
• D. Advise the client to designate a person to make healthcare decisions when the client is unable to do so.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client expresses the desire to not be resuscitated, it is essential to inquire if this decision has been discussed with their healthcare provider. This is important to ensure that the client's wishes are appropriately documented and legally binding through the healthcare provider's guidance. It is crucial that healthcare decisions, especially those involving life-saving measures, are well-communicated and documented to respect the client's autonomy and ensure their wishes are honored. Option A is not the best action as it does not address the need to verify discussion with the healthcare provider. Option C is incorrect as it overemphasizes the need for a notarized advance directive, which may not be immediately feasible or necessary in this urgent situation. Option D is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate focus should be on clarifying if the decision has been communicated with the healthcare provider.

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