Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg.
• B. The client gains 1 kg in 24 hours.
• C. The client's potassium level is 5.5 mEq/L.
• D. The client's weight decreases by 0.5 kg in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.

2. The healthcare provider identifies a potential for infection in a client with partial-thickness (second-degree) and full-thickness (third-degree) burns. What intervention has the highest priority in decreasing the client's risk of infection?

• A. Administration of plasma expanders
• B. Use of careful handwashing technique
• C. Application of a topical antibacterial cream
• D. Limiting visitors to the client with burns

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Proper handwashing technique is crucial in preventing the transmission of infections, especially in clients with burns where the risk of infection is high. It is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of contamination and promote healing in these clients. While plasma expanders, topical antibacterial creams, and visitor restrictions are important considerations in burn care, meticulous hand hygiene takes precedence in preventing infections. Handwashing helps remove pathogens that could lead to infections, making it essential in the care of clients with burns.

3. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for an adult client with hypernatremia?

• A. Monitor daily urine output volume
• B. Drink plenty of water whenever thirsty
• C. Use salt tablets for sodium content
• D. Review food labels for sodium content

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hypernatremia, there is an excess of sodium in the blood. Reviewing food labels for sodium content is crucial as it helps the client identify and avoid high-sodium foods, which can contribute to elevated sodium levels. Monitoring urine output volume may be important for other conditions but is not directly related to managing hypernatremia. Drinking water whenever thirsty is generally good advice for staying hydrated but does not specifically address the issue of high sodium levels. Using salt tablets would worsen hypernatremia by further increasing sodium intake.

4. A client has an elevated AST 24 hours following chest pain and shortness of breath. This is suggestive of which of the following?

• A. Gallbladder disease
• B. Liver disease
• C. Myocardial infarction
• D. Skeletal muscle injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated AST level following chest pain and shortness of breath is suggestive of myocardial infarction. AST is released from damaged heart muscle cells during a heart attack, indicating cardiac involvement. This enzyme is not specific to liver disease, gallbladder disease, or skeletal muscle injury in this clinical context.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Oliguria.
• B. Kussmaul respirations.
• C. Fruity odor on the breath.
• D. Blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kussmaul respirations (B) are a deep and labored breathing pattern associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and are expected in this condition. While oliguria (A), fruity odor on the breath (C), and elevated blood glucose level (D) are also signs of DKA, Kussmaul respirations are more specific and critical to the condition, indicating severe metabolic acidosis.

Similar Questions