Nursing Elites

1. When a client has suffered severe burns all over his body, the most effective method of monitoring the cardiovascular system is:

• A. Cuff blood pressure.
• B. Arterial pressure.
• C. Pulmonary artery pressure.
• D. Central venous pressure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring is the most effective method to assess fluid status and the cardiovascular system in a client with severe burns. Severe burns can lead to significant fluid shifts and hemodynamic changes, making central venous pressure monitoring crucial for guiding fluid resuscitation and managing cardiovascular stability in these patients.

2. When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, which action should the staff member take first?

• A. Notify the friend that all medical information will be kept confidential.
• B. Explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment.
• C. Approach the client and ask if the assignment is uncomfortable.
• D. Accept the assignment but protect the client's confidentiality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When faced with caring for a close friend in a professional setting, the staff member should first explain the relationship to the charge nurse and ask for reassignment. This is important to maintain professional boundaries, prevent conflicts of interest, and ensure that the care provided is unbiased and without compromising the friend's confidentiality. Choice A is incorrect because the priority should be on professional boundaries rather than informing the friend about confidentiality. Choice C is not appropriate as it puts the burden on the client to address any discomfort. Choice D is incorrect as accepting the assignment without addressing the potential conflict of interest could lead to compromised care.

3. When a health care provider diagnoses metastatic cancer and recommends a gastrostomy for an older female client in stable condition, the son tells the nurse that his mother must not be told the reason for the surgery because she 'can't handle' the cancer diagnosis. Which legal principle is the court most likely to uphold regarding this client's right to informed consent?

• A. The family cannot provide the consent required in this situation because the older adult is in a condition to make such decisions.
• B. Because the client is mentally incompetent, the son does not have the right to waive informed consent for her.
• C. The court will not allow the health care provider to make the decision to withhold informed consent under therapeutic privilege.
• D. If informed consent is withheld from a client, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the scenario described, it is crucial for health care providers to obtain informed consent from the client before proceeding with any medical intervention. If informed consent is withheld and the treatment is carried out without the client's agreement, health care providers could be found guilty of negligence, specifically assault and battery. This legal principle emphasizes the importance of respecting a client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own healthcare. Despite the son's wishes to withhold information from his mother, the client must be informed of the proposed treatment and given the opportunity to consent or refuse based on complete information provided by the healthcare team.

4. An adult has a coagulation time of 20 minutes. The nurse should observe the client for which of the following?

• A. Blood clots
• B. Ecchymotic areas
• C. Jaundice
• D. Infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A coagulation time of 20 minutes is prolonged, suggesting a potential bleeding disorder. Ecchymotic areas, which are areas of bruising, are common signs of abnormal bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should observe the client for ecchymotic areas to monitor for potential bleeding issues. Blood clots are not typically associated with prolonged coagulation time but rather with excessive clotting. Jaundice is related to liver dysfunction, and infection is not directly linked to coagulation time.

5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute. Which assessment finding indicates a need for immediate action?

• A. The client's respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute.
• B. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• C. The client reports shortness of breath.
• D. The client's respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A report of shortness of breath (C) indicates that the client is not tolerating the oxygen therapy well and may need an adjustment. Shortness of breath is a critical symptom in a client with COPD, as it signifies potential respiratory distress. A respiratory rate of 14 (A) is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD and does not require immediate action. An oxygen saturation of 92% (B) is slightly lower but still acceptable in COPD patients. Although a respiratory rate of 24 (D) is higher, it is not as immediately concerning as shortness of breath in this context.

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