a male client who has had coronary artery bypass graft surgery is admitted to the coronary care unit after surgery which nursing diagnosis has the hig
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Community Health

1. After coronary artery bypass graft surgery, a male client is admitted to the coronary care unit. Which nursing diagnosis is of the highest priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Impaired gas exchange is the highest priority nursing diagnosis because it directly impacts the client's oxygenation. Following coronary artery bypass graft surgery, ensuring adequate oxygen exchange is crucial for the client's recovery. Ineffective breathing pattern, although important, may not be as critical as impaired gas exchange in the immediate postoperative period. Acute pain, while significant, can be managed effectively with appropriate interventions and is not as emergent as addressing impaired gas exchange. Risk for infection is also a valid concern post-surgery, but ensuring optimal gas exchange takes precedence to prevent complications associated with inadequate oxygenation.

2. A community health nurse is planning a program to reduce the incidence of heart disease in the community. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Organizing free cholesterol screenings. This intervention is crucial because it helps identify individuals at risk for heart disease by assessing their cholesterol levels. High cholesterol is a significant risk factor for heart disease, and identifying it early can lead to timely interventions and medical care. Choices A, C, and D, while beneficial for overall health, may not directly address the specific risk factor of high cholesterol associated with heart disease. Distributing educational materials on heart-healthy diets (A) could be helpful in preventing heart disease, but identifying individuals already at risk is a more urgent need. Holding workshops on stress management (C) and partnering with local gyms for fitness classes (D) are important for overall health promotion but may not target the specific risk factor of high cholesterol as directly as organizing cholesterol screenings.

3. A client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) has an elevated blood glucose level. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a client receiving TPN with an elevated blood glucose level is to check the TPN infusion rate. Elevated blood glucose levels in clients receiving TPN can be due to incorrect infusion rates leading to increased glucose delivery. By checking the TPN infusion rate, the nurse can verify if the rate is appropriate and make necessary adjustments. Stopping the TPN infusion abruptly could lead to complications from sudden nutrient deprivation. Administering insulin as prescribed may be necessary but should come after ensuring the correct TPN infusion rate. Notifying the healthcare provider is important but addressing the immediate need to check the infusion rate takes priority to manage hyperglycemia effectively.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a new arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for hemodialysis. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness in the client's arm suggest infection or thrombosis of the arteriovenous fistula, which requires immediate intervention to prevent complications. A thrill (A) is a normal finding in a functional arteriovenous fistula, indicating good blood flow. A bruit (C) is also a normal finding on auscultation of a functioning arteriovenous fistula, indicating proper blood flow. The absence of a bruit (D) may indicate a non-functioning fistula, which would need further evaluation but does not require immediate intervention as warmth and redness do.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

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