Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare professional is developing a community health program to address the high rates of childhood asthma in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the healthcare professional prioritize?

• A. conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers
• B. distributing asthma education materials at schools
• C. holding workshops on asthma management for parents
• D. partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers as it is crucial for reducing asthma attacks in children. By identifying triggers in the home environment, interventions can be implemented to create a safer living space for children with asthma. This approach directly addresses the root cause of asthma exacerbations. Distributing asthma education materials at schools is beneficial for raising awareness but may not address individual triggers. Holding workshops on asthma management for parents is valuable for education but does not directly tackle trigger identification. Partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings focuses on detection rather than prevention through trigger identification.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which laboratory result requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum calcium of 11 mg/dL.
• B. Serum phosphorus of 3 mg/dL.
• C. Serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL.
• D. Serum albumin of 4 g/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 11 mg/dL indicates hypercalcemia, which can be a complication of hyperparathyroidism and requires immediate intervention. Hypercalcemia can lead to serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias, renal failure, and neurologic symptoms. Monitoring and managing serum calcium levels are crucial in clients with hyperparathyroidism. Serum phosphorus, magnesium, and albumin levels are important to assess in clients with hyperparathyroidism, but they do not require immediate intervention as hypercalcemia poses a more urgent risk.

3. The healthcare professional is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day.
• B. Remove the brace while sleeping.
• C. Wear the brace directly against the skin.
• D. Remove the brace while eating.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Milwaukee brace should be worn over a T-shirt for 23 hours a day to reduce friction and chafing of the skin. This ensures that the brace is not directly against the skin, which can cause discomfort and skin irritation. Choice B is incorrect because the brace should typically be worn continuously, even while sleeping, unless otherwise instructed by a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as wearing the brace directly against the skin can lead to skin issues. Choice D is incorrect since the brace should not be removed while eating to maintain the prescribed wear time.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with pneumonia. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 88%
• B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• D. Productive cough with green sputum

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with COPD admitted with pneumonia, a productive cough with green sputum indicates a potential bacterial infection. Green sputum is commonly associated with bacterial pneumonia, which requires immediate intervention with appropriate antibiotics. Monitoring oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, and heart rate are essential in COPD patients, but the presence of green sputum suggests an urgent need for targeted treatment to address the underlying infection. Oxygen saturation of 88% is concerning but may not directly indicate the need for immediate intervention in the absence of other critical symptoms. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute and a heart rate of 90 beats per minute are within normal limits and may not be indicative of an acute issue requiring immediate intervention in this context.

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