Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning a community event to raise awareness about mental health. Which activity should be included to best engage participants?

• A. lectures by mental health professionals
• B. interactive workshops on stress management
• C. distribution of mental health resources
• D. screenings for depression and anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Interactive workshops on stress management should be included to best engage participants in a community event about mental health. Unlike lectures by mental health professionals, workshops actively involve participants, allowing for interaction and practical skill-building. While distributing mental health resources and providing screenings for depression and anxiety are important components, interactive workshops offer a more engaging and hands-on approach, empowering individuals with skills they can use to manage their mental health effectively.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a community health program to address the high rates of childhood asthma in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the healthcare professional prioritize?

• A. conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers
• B. distributing asthma education materials at schools
• C. holding workshops on asthma management for parents
• D. partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers as it is crucial for reducing asthma attacks in children. By identifying triggers in the home environment, interventions can be implemented to create a safer living space for children with asthma. This approach directly addresses the root cause of asthma exacerbations. Distributing asthma education materials at schools is beneficial for raising awareness but may not address individual triggers. Holding workshops on asthma management for parents is valuable for education but does not directly tackle trigger identification. Partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings focuses on detection rather than prevention through trigger identification.

3. What information should the nurse provide a client who has undergone cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer?

• A. Expect heavy, watery vaginal discharge for 3 to 6 weeks.
• B. Use a tampon instead of a sanitary napkin.
• C. Report any severe cramping immediately.
• D. Avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After cryosurgery for stage 1A cervical cancer, clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 3 to 6 weeks to reduce the risk of infection. Heavy, watery vaginal discharge is expected but not the focus of post-procedure instructions. Using tampons is contraindicated as they can introduce bacteria into the healing cervix. While reporting severe cramping is important, avoiding sexual intercourse is the priority to prevent complications.

4. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

• A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
• B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
• C. Check for signs of infection.
• D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.

5. During which home visit performed by a registered nurse or a practical nurse can the home healthcare agency expect Medicare reimbursement for documenting a skilled care service provided?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. According to current CDC guidelines, a child receiving the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine at 12 months of age should plan to receive the MMR booster between 4-6 years of age. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the CDC's recommended age range for the MMR vaccine booster. It is crucial for healthcare providers to stay updated with current guidelines to ensure the timely administration of vaccines for optimal protection.

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