HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube site.
- B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
- C. Assess for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
- D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse observes crepitus around a chest tube site, it could indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a potentially serious condition where air gets trapped under the skin. Measuring the area of swelling and crackling is important as it helps monitor the progression of subcutaneous emphysema. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might not address the underlying cause and could potentially worsen the condition. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for crepitus at a chest tube site. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when crepitus is observed.
2. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.
3. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Nausea and vomiting
- B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
- C. Diffuse macular rash
- D. Muscle tenderness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit indicates that the infection is not under control despite antibiotic therapy. Fever is a common sign of ongoing infection or inadequate response to treatment. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically indicative of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating infective endocarditis.
4. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.
5. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Place the client in a lateral position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.
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