Nursing Elites

1. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying

• A. He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him.
• B. I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do.
• C. He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do.
• D. Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Severe chest pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

• A. Take the medication with aspirin to improve effectiveness.
• B. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables to support the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium to reduce bleeding risk.
• D. Avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting the provider.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement
• B. Encourage the client to eat potassium-rich foods
• C. Hold the next dose of furosemide
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

5. An older client with a long history of coronary artery disease, HTN, and HF arrives in the ED in respiratory distress. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide IV. Which therapeutic response to furosemide should the nurse expect in the client with acute HF?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Improved blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Reduced preload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced preload. Furosemide is a diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart failure, which lowers the preload (the volume of blood in the ventricles before contraction). By reducing this volume, furosemide improves symptoms of heart failure. While furosemide may lead to increased urine output and lower blood pressure, these effects are secondary to the reduction in preload. Decreased heart rate is not a direct effect of furosemide in heart failure.

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