after working with a very demanding client an unlicensed assistive personnel uap tells the nurse i have had it with that client i just cant do anythin
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.

2. A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports nausea and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) reports symptoms like nausea and dizziness, the first action the nurse should take is to check the client's vital signs and blood pressure. This assessment helps determine the client's overall stability and can provide crucial information to guide further interventions. Checking the blood glucose level (Choice A) may be relevant but is not the priority in this situation. Decreasing the infusion rate of TPN (Choice C) may be necessary but should be based on assessment findings. Administering antiemetic medication (Choice D) should not be the initial action without first assessing the client's vital signs.

3. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who had a myocardial infarction 6 hours ago. The primary goal of care at this time is to

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Limit the effects of tissue damage.' After a myocardial infarction, the primary goal of care is to limit the damage to the heart muscle. This includes interventions to improve blood flow, oxygenation, and prevent further complications. Choice B ('Relieve pain and anxiety') is important but secondary to addressing tissue damage. Choice C ('Prevent arrhythmias') is also crucial but falls under the broader goal of limiting tissue damage. Choice D ('Reduce anxiety') is essential for holistic care but is not the primary goal immediately after a myocardial infarction.

5. What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed nitroglycerin for a myocardial infarction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.' This instruction is crucial to prevent excessive use, which can lead to severe hypotension and other complications. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should also be used preventatively, not only during severe chest pain. Choice B is irrelevant and not a necessary instruction for nitroglycerin use. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin is typically taken to prevent chest pain rather than waiting for an activity that may trigger it.

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