Nursing Elites

1. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying

• A. He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him.
• B. I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do.
• C. He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do.
• D. Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.

2. An older client is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious after several days of vomiting and diarrhea. The nurse inserts a urinary catheter and observes dark amber urine output. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Begin dopamine infusion at 2 mcg/kg/minute.
• B. Begin potassium chloride 10 mEq over 1 hour.
• C. Give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes.
• D. Administer promethazine 25 mg IV push.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to give a bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride 1000 mL over 30 minutes. The client's dark amber urine output indicates dehydration and hypovolemia, requiring rapid fluid resuscitation. Dopamine infusion, potassium chloride, and promethazine are not the initial interventions needed for a client with hypovolemic symptoms.

3. The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

• A. We will call the health care provider if the child develops acne.
• B. Our child should brush and floss carefully after every meal.
• C. We will skip the next dose if vomiting or fever occur.
• D. When our child is seizure-free for 6 months, we can stop the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, so good oral hygiene is important to prevent complications.

4. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

5. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

• A. The client delivered a large baby
• B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
• C. The client had a cesarean delivery
• D. The client had a prolonged labor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

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