Nursing Elites

1. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying

• A. He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him.
• B. I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do.
• C. He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do.
• D. Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.

2. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

• A. Mild impairment
• B. Moderate impairment
• C. Severe impairment
• D. Normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What client teaching is essential?

• A. Increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria.
• B. Take the medication with meals to prevent GI upset.
• C. Avoid sunlight exposure while taking the medication.
• D. Report any changes in the color of urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase fluid intake to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin. Crystalluria is the formation of crystals in the urine, which can be reduced by maintaining adequate hydration. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding sunlight exposure is more relevant for medications that cause photosensitivity, not typically a concern with ciprofloxacin. Choice D is less essential than choice A because while reporting changes in urine color is important, preventing crystalluria through adequate fluid intake is a higher priority.

4. A client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy two days ago is now preparing for discharge. Which assessment finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign suggests hypocalcemia, which is a post-parathyroidectomy complication and requires prompt treatment. The other options are less urgent: being afebrile with a normal pulse is expected, no bowel movement since surgery can be managed with interventions like early ambulation and stool softeners, and no appetite for breakfast is common postoperatively and can be addressed without immediate provider notification.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• B. Monitor the client’s prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• D. Monitor the client’s red blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

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