Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

2. What safety measure should the nurse take for a client with a seizure disorder who has an IV line?

• A. Ensure that the IV site is padded and protected.
• B. Limit the client's mobility to prevent dislodging the IV.
• C. Place the IV site on the same side as the seizure activity.
• D. Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Ensure the client is positioned on the opposite side of the IV line. Placing the IV line on the opposite side of any seizure activity is essential to prevent injury. It helps to ensure that the IV line is not dislodged during a seizure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While padding and protecting the IV site is important, the priority is to position the client on the side opposite to the IV line to prevent dislodgement and injury during a seizure.

3. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
• D. Absence of ketones in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

4. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?

• A. Pupils equal and reactive to light.
• B. Sudden increase in urine output.
• C. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
• D. Increase in blood pressure by 20 mmHg.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.

5. Which medication should the nurse withhold if the client's serum potassium level is 6.2 mEq/L?

• A. Losartan
• B. Spironolactone
• C. Metoprolol
• D. Furosemide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia. With potassium levels already elevated at 6.2 mEq/L, withholding Spironolactone is essential to prevent further increase in potassium levels, which could result in dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Losartan (Choice A) is an angiotensin receptor blocker and does not directly affect potassium levels. Metoprolol (Choice C) is a beta-blocker and also does not impact potassium levels significantly. Furosemide (Choice D) is a loop diuretic that can actually lower potassium levels, so it would not be the medication to withhold in this case.

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