an older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

2. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

3. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

4. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

5. A male client reports numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. What laboratory value should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and around the mouth are indicative of hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low calcium levels in the blood. Reviewing the client's serum calcium levels is crucial in this situation to assess for hypocalcemia. Choice A, Capillary glucose, is incorrect because symptoms described are not typically associated with glucose abnormalities. Choice C, Urine specific gravity, and Choice D, White blood cell count, are unrelated to the symptoms presented and are not indicative of the client's condition.

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