Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to prevent infection?

• A. Maintain a closed drainage system
• B. Cleanse the catheter insertion site daily
• C. Increase the client's fluid intake
• D. Empty the collection bag every 4 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a closed drainage system. This action is crucial in preventing infection as it helps prevent bacteria from entering the urinary tract. While cleansing the catheter insertion site and ensuring adequate hydration are important aspects of catheter care, the top priority is maintaining the integrity of the closed system to prevent infection. Emptying the collection bag regularly is also important but not as critical as ensuring a closed drainage system to minimize infection risk.

3. A client receiving full-strength continuous enteral tube feeding develops diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the feeding and provide IV fluids.
• B. Dilute the feeding to half strength and continue at the same rate.
• C. Reduce the feeding rate and monitor for improvement.
• D. Add fiber to the client's diet to resolve diarrhea.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client develops diarrhea from continuous enteral tube feeding, diluting the feeding to half strength and continuing at the same rate is the appropriate intervention. This helps reduce the strength of the feeding, minimizing gastrointestinal upset while still providing necessary nutrition. Stopping the feeding abruptly (Choice A) may lead to nutritional deficits. Simply reducing the feeding rate (Choice C) may not effectively address the issue of diarrhea. Adding fiber (Choice D) could potentially worsen the diarrhea in this scenario instead of resolving it.

4. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

5. A client with chronic renal failure has a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a potassium supplement.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Administer calcium gluconate.
• D. Restrict the client's potassium intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. The correct priority action for the nurse is to notify the healthcare provider immediately. Hyperkalemia requires prompt intervention to lower potassium levels and prevent complications. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice A) would worsen the condition. Administering calcium gluconate (Choice C) is a treatment option but is not the nurse's priority action. Restricting the client's potassium intake (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority when facing a critical potassium level.

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