Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

2. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?

• A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
• B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
• C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
• D. Assess the pupillary response to light.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.

3. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
• B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
• C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
• D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.

4. A client with a venous leg ulcer is receiving compression therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Decreased pain and increased redness around the ulcer.
• B. Increased serous drainage from the ulcer site.
• C. Cool extremities and weak peripheral pulses.
• D. Pitting edema around the ulcer site.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool extremities and weak peripheral pulses indicate compromised circulation, possibly due to inadequate arterial blood supply. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or non-healing ulcers. Option A, decreased pain and increased redness, can be a sign of improving wound condition. Option B, increased serous drainage, may indicate a normal part of the healing process. Option D, pitting edema, is common in venous leg ulcers and may not require immediate intervention unless severe and accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

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