HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
- B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
- C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
- D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.
2. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
- B. Place the client in a supine position.
- C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
- D. Review the client's recent medication history.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.
3. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical radiation implant. What action should the nurse take when finding the radiation implant in the bed?
- A. Call radiation therapy for assistance
- B. Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps
- C. Leave the implant in the bed and notify the provider
- D. Dispose of the implant in the nearest sharps container
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when finding the radiation implant in the bed is to use long-handled forceps to place the implant in a lead container. This procedure is crucial in reducing radiation exposure to both the patient and healthcare providers. Calling radiation therapy for assistance (Choice A) may delay the immediate need for safe handling of the implant. Leaving the implant in the bed and notifying the provider (Choice C) is unsafe and can lead to increased radiation exposure. Disposing of the implant in a sharps container (Choice D) is incorrect as the implant should be placed in a lead container, not a sharps container, to contain the radiation.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
- B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
- C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
- D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.
5. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan?
- A. Pap smear is sufficient to detect ovarian cancer
- B. Surgery is unnecessary based on negative Pap smear
- C. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- D. No further tests are needed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A negative Pap smear does not rule out ovarian cancer, which often requires more comprehensive evaluation, including imaging studies or surgery. The client should be informed that the Pap smear primarily detects cervical cancer, not ovarian cancer. Therefore, further evaluation involving imaging studies or surgery may be necessary to determine the presence of ovarian cancer. Choice A is incorrect because a Pap smear is not sufficient to detect ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect because surgery may be necessary for further evaluation if ovarian cancer is suspected. Choice D is incorrect because further tests are needed to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer.
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