Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

2. A client with pneumonia is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

• A. Instruct the client to rest as much as possible.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake to thin secretions.
• C. Explain the importance of completing the entire course of antibiotics.
• D. Instruct the client to stop taking antibiotics once symptoms subside.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antibiotics must be taken for the entire prescribed duration to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated. Stopping antibiotics early, even if symptoms improve, can lead to a recurrence of the infection or antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because though rest is important, completing the antibiotic course is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as while hydration is beneficial, completing the antibiotics is the priority. Choice D is incorrect as stopping antibiotics prematurely can have negative consequences.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
• B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
• C. Client reports increased energy levels
• D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

4. The nurse reviews the diagnostic tests prescribed for a client with a positive skin test. Which subjective findings reported by the client support the diagnosis of tuberculosis?

• A. Mucopurulent cough and night sweats
• B. Fatigue and headache
• C. Persistent cough and weight gain
• D. Weight loss and fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A mucopurulent cough and night sweats are hallmark signs of active tuberculosis. These symptoms are key indicators of TB as the combination of a productive cough with night sweats is highly suggestive of the disease. Fatigue and headache (choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in many conditions and are not specific to TB. Persistent cough and weight gain (choice C) are not typical findings in tuberculosis. Weight loss and fever (choice D) can be present in TB, but the specific combination of mucopurulent cough and night sweats is more specific to the diagnosis.

5. A client who is bedridden after a stroke is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which nursing intervention is most important in preventing this complication?

• A. Apply lotion to the skin every 4 hours.
• B. Reposition the client every 2 hours.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed 30 degrees.
• D. Massage the skin at least twice a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client every 2 hours is crucial in preventing pressure ulcers in bedridden clients. This intervention helps in relieving pressure on specific areas of the body, promoting circulation, and reducing the risk of tissue damage. Applying lotion every 4 hours (Choice A) may not address the root cause of pressure ulcers. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) is beneficial for some conditions but not specifically targeted at preventing pressure ulcers. Massaging the skin at least twice a day (Choice D) can actually increase the risk of skin breakdown in individuals at risk for pressure ulcers by causing friction and shearing forces on the skin.

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