Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

2. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports frequent heartburn. What dietary modification should the nurse recommend?

• A. Avoid eating large meals late at night.
• B. Eat a high-fat diet to buffer stomach acid.
• C. Reduce fluid intake to prevent acid reflux.
• D. Consume spicy foods to neutralize stomach acid.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend avoiding eating large meals late at night. This dietary modification can help reduce the risk of acid reflux, which can exacerbate GERD symptoms. Consuming smaller, more frequent meals is generally recommended to minimize pressure on the lower esophageal sphincter. Choice B is incorrect because a high-fat diet can worsen GERD symptoms by delaying stomach emptying. Choice C is incorrect because reducing fluid intake can lead to dehydration and will not prevent acid reflux. Choice D is incorrect because spicy foods can actually trigger or worsen acid reflux symptoms in individuals with GERD.

3. An elderly client reports new-onset confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate intravenous fluids
• B. Obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen
• C. Administer antibiotics
• D. Start a Foley catheter to obtain a sterile sample

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The client's symptoms of confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency are suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). To confirm the diagnosis and identify the causative organism, a urine specimen should be collected before initiating any treatment. Initiating intravenous fluids (Choice A) may be necessary later based on the client's condition but is not the initial priority. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) should be done after confirming the diagnosis through urine culture. Starting a Foley catheter (Choice D) to obtain a sterile sample is more invasive and should not be the first step in the assessment and management of a suspected UTI.

4. A client's chest tube insertion site has crepitus (crackling sensation) upon palpation. What is the nurse's next step?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing to the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct next step for the nurse is to measure the area of crepitus. Crepitus indicates subcutaneous emphysema, which is a serious condition requiring monitoring. Applying a pressure dressing (Choice A) could worsen the condition by trapping air under the skin. Administering an oral antihistamine (Choice B) is not indicated for crepitus. Assessing for allergies to cleaning agents (Choice C) is not the priority when dealing with crepitus and subcutaneous emphysema.

5. When assessing a client, why is it important for the nurse to be informed about cultural issues related to the client's background?

• A. Normal patterns of behavior may be labeled as deviant, immoral, or insane
• B. The meaning of the client's behavior can be derived from conventional wisdom
• C. Personal values will guide the interaction between individuals from different cultures
• D. The nurse should rely on her knowledge of different developmental mental stages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Being aware of cultural differences is crucial because normal behaviors in one culture may be perceived as deviant, immoral, or insane in another. This awareness helps the nurse avoid misunderstandings or misinterpretations of behaviors that are considered acceptable in the client's cultural context but may be viewed differently in another. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because understanding cultural issues goes beyond deriving meanings from conventional wisdom, personal values guiding interactions, or relying solely on knowledge of developmental mental stages.

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