Nursing Elites

1. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
• B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
• C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
• D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the tube?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
• B. Aspirate gastric contents before administering medications
• C. Clamp the tube between feedings
• D. Flush the tube with water before and after feedings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the PEG tube with water before and after feedings helps prevent clogging and maintains tube patency. Proper flushing is essential for avoiding complications related to tube blockages. Elevating the head of the bed is important for preventing aspiration during and after feedings, not specifically related to PEG tube complications. Aspirating gastric contents before administering medications is not routinely recommended for PEG tube care. Clamping the tube between feedings can lead to tube occlusion and is not a standard practice in PEG tube care.

3. The nurse is conducting diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypertension. Which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Pickled olives
• B. Canned soup
• C. Fresh or frozen vegetables without sauce
• D. Fruits without sauce

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fresh or frozen vegetables without sauce. These foods are low in sodium, which is crucial for managing hypertension. Pickled olives (choice A) and canned soup (choice B) are high in sodium, which can exacerbate hypertension. While fruits without sauce (choice D) are generally healthy, emphasizing vegetables is more beneficial for hypertension due to their lower sodium content.

4. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

• A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
• B. Missed a dose of insulin
• C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
• D. Overexerted during exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

5. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
• C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
• D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.

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