Nursing Elites

1. A female client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is sedated and on a ventilator with 50% FIO2. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention?

• A. Assess the client’s lung sounds bilaterally.
• B. Diminished left lower lobe sounds.
• C. Monitor ventilator settings for changes in oxygen levels.
• D. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diminished breath sounds in a sedated client with ARDS and on a ventilator indicate collapsed alveoli, which requires immediate intervention, such as chest tube insertion, to prevent further lung damage. Assessing bilateral lung sounds (Choice A) is important but not as urgent as identifying diminished sounds in a specific location. Monitoring ventilator settings (Choice C) is essential but does not directly address the immediate need for intervention due to diminished breath sounds. Increased sputum production and shortness of breath (Choice D) may indicate other issues but are not specific to the urgency of addressing diminished breath sounds in ARDS.

2. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning, she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Client's current mood and affect
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder
• C. History of previous suicide attempts
• D. Details of the medications ingested

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Determining the specific medications ingested is the priority for guiding immediate treatment in the Emergency Department. Knowing when the client last took medications and her current mood are also important, but the ingested medications are the most urgent information needed. The client's current mood and affect are crucial for assessing her immediate state, but the priority is to identify the substances she ingested to provide appropriate interventions. While understanding the history of previous suicide attempts is relevant for assessing the client's risk, the immediate focus should be on the medications taken during this specific incident.

3. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Provide a carbohydrate snack
• C. Check the client's urine for ketones
• D. Start an insulin drip

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications if not treated immediately. The priority is to administer IV dextrose to rapidly increase the blood sugar level. Administering 50% dextrose IV push will provide a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar. Providing a carbohydrate snack is not the immediate priority in this critical situation. Checking the client's urine for ketones is important in diabetic ketoacidosis, not for hypoglycemia. Starting an insulin drip would further lower the blood sugar and worsen the client's condition.

5. During the admission assessment of a 3-year-old with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus, which assessment finding is evidence of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Low blood pressure
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Normal pupil reaction
• D. Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sluggish and unequal pupillary responses are indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a child with bacterial meningitis and hydrocephalus. This finding suggests that the optic nerve is being compressed due to increased ICP, causing a delay in pupillary reactions. Such a delay is a critical sign of worsening ICP and necessitates immediate intervention. Low blood pressure and increased respiratory rate can occur in various conditions but are less specific to increased ICP than sluggish and unequal pupillary responses, which directly reflect neurological compromise.

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