Nursing Elites

1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

2. A client with hyperparathyroidism is receiving dietary instructions. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Bananas
• C. Spinach
• D. Processed meats

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperparathyroidism, there are already elevated calcium levels in the body. Therefore, clients should avoid high-calcium foods like milk to prevent further increase in calcium levels. Bananas, spinach, and processed meats do not have significant calcium content and do not need to be avoided specifically in hyperparathyroidism.

3. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, Nurse April is most likely to detect:

• A. A blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg
• B. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
• C. Bradycardia
• D. A blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. The normal blood pressure range is around 120/80 mm Hg, so a blood pressure reading of 176/88 mm Hg is most likely to be detected in a client with pheochromocytoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because pheochromocytoma typically presents with hypertension, not a normal or low blood pressure (choice A), not related to blood glucose levels (choice B), and not bradycardia (choice C).

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

5. Dr. Kennedy prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.
• B. Glipizide may cause a low serum sodium level, so make sure you have your sodium level checked monthly.
• C. You won't need to check your blood glucose level after you start taking glipizide.
• D. Take glipizide after a meal to prevent heartburn.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glipizide should be taken 30 minutes before meals to maximize its glucose-lowering effect.

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