which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh secretion is experiencing complications
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HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

2. When should a new nurse graduate consider applying for a position as a nurse manager?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A new nurse graduate should consider applying for a position as a nurse manager when she has developed leadership and clinical expertise. Option A, 'When she is comfortable in her current position,' is incorrect as comfort in the current position may not necessarily align with the skills required for a managerial role. Option B, 'When she begins mentoring other new nurses,' is not a definitive indicator of readiness for a managerial position. Option C, 'As soon as a position opens,' does not take into account the necessary skills and experience required for a nurse manager role. Therefore, the best time to consider applying for a nurse manager position is after developing the required leadership and clinical expertise.

3. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

4. The client has been diagnosed with primary aldosteronism. Which of the following clinical findings would the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Primary aldosteronism involves the overproduction of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Aldosterone increases potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, in primary aldosteronism, the nurse would expect to find hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia (choice A), hyponatremia (choice C), or hypercalcemia (choice D).

5. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L on one client's laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the development of a potassium value at this level?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients who have sustained traumatic burns are at a higher risk of developing hyperkalemia due to cell lysis. When cells are damaged in a traumatic burn, potassium can leak out from the intracellular space into the bloodstream, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. Colitis, Cushing's syndrome, and overuse of laxatives are not typically associated with the same degree of cell damage or potassium shifts seen in traumatic burns, making them less likely to result in such high potassium levels.

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