Nursing Elites

1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

2. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

3. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

4. Which of the following actions by the healthcare provider would be considered false imprisonment?

• A. The healthcare provider tells the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them.
• B. The healthcare provider asks the client why they wish to leave.
• C. The healthcare provider asks the client to explain what they understand about their medical diagnosis.
• D. The healthcare provider asks the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. False imprisonment occurs when a healthcare provider restrains a client from leaving against their will, even if the provider believes it is in the client's best interest. In this scenario, telling the client they are not allowed to leave until the physician has released them constitutes false imprisonment as it restricts the client's freedom of movement. Choice B is incorrect because asking the client why they wish to leave is a form of assessment and does not involve restraining the client. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to educating the client about their medical condition. Choice D is incorrect because asking the client to sign an against medical advice discharge form is a legal and ethical procedure to ensure the client understands the risks of leaving against medical advice.

5. A female client with Cushing's syndrome is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. During the admission assessment, Nurse Tyzz notes that the client is agitated, irritable, has poor memory, reports loss of appetite, and appears disheveled. These findings are consistent with which problem?

• A. Depression
• B. Neuropathy
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Depression. Depression is a common psychological manifestation in clients with Cushing's syndrome. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of agitation, irritability, poor memory, loss of appetite, and disheveled appearance are indicative of depressive symptoms rather than neuropathy, hypoglycemia, or hyperthyroidism. Neuropathy typically presents with sensory changes and motor deficits, which are not described in the scenario. Hypoglycemia would manifest with symptoms such as diaphoresis, tremors, and confusion, which are not mentioned. Hyperthyroidism symptoms include weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

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