Nursing Elites

1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

• A. Tetanic contractions
• B. Neck vein distention
• C. Weight loss
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

2. When assessing a male client with pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, Nurse April is most likely to detect:

• A. A blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg
• B. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dl
• C. Bradycardia
• D. A blood pressure of 176/88 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal medulla that secretes excessive catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. The normal blood pressure range is around 120/80 mm Hg, so a blood pressure reading of 176/88 mm Hg is most likely to be detected in a client with pheochromocytoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because pheochromocytoma typically presents with hypertension, not a normal or low blood pressure (choice A), not related to blood glucose levels (choice B), and not bradycardia (choice C).

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with Addison's disease. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with this condition?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hyperpigmentation
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hyperpigmentation is a characteristic symptom of Addison's disease. In Addison's disease, there is a decrease in cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion by the pituitary gland. Excess ACTH can stimulate melanocytes, resulting in hyperpigmentation. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with Addison's disease. Hypertension is more commonly associated with conditions involving excess cortisol production, such as Cushing's syndrome. Hyperglycemia may occur in diabetes mellitus but is not a hallmark of Addison's disease. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is a common symptom of Addison's disease due to decreased cortisol levels.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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