a client with graves disease is prescribed propranolol the nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. A client with Graves' disease is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that the purpose of this medication is to:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Alleviate symptoms such as tachycardia and tremors. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that helps manage symptoms like tachycardia (fast heart rate) and tremors in patients with Graves' disease. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol does not address the underlying cause of Graves' disease, which is autoimmune in nature. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not directly reduce thyroid hormone production; it mainly targets the symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while propranolol may help with symptoms like tachycardia, it is not intended to increase energy levels.

2. The client with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is being taught about managing blood glucose levels. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C indicates a need for further teaching because stating 'I can eat unlimited fruit as it is healthy' is incorrect. While fruits are healthy, they also contain natural sugars that can affect blood glucose levels. Portion control is crucial to managing blood glucose levels effectively. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate correct understanding. Rotating insulin injection sites helps prevent tissue damage, monitoring blood glucose levels before meals aids in managing diabetes effectively, and carrying a fast-acting carbohydrate is essential to treat hypoglycemia promptly.

3. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

4. A nurse manager is reviewing data from the unit. More than 50% of new nurses hired left within 1 year of being hired. Which of the following implementations should the nurse manager consider to improve retention of newly hired nurses?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To improve retention of newly hired nurses, the nurse manager should focus on building their own leadership skills and relationships with staff members. By creating a supportive environment and demonstrating effective leadership, the manager can positively impact staff retention. Options A, B, and C do not directly address the core issue of creating a supportive work environment and effective leadership, which are crucial for retaining newly hired nurses.

5. The client with type 1 DM asks why it is necessary to rotate injection sites when managing insulin therapy. The nurse's best response is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rotating injection sites is necessary to ensure more consistent insulin absorption. This practice helps maintain stable blood glucose levels by preventing the formation of lipohypertrophy (fatty lumps under the skin) at injection sites. Choices A and B are incorrect as the primary purpose of rotating injection sites is not focused on preventing skin irritation or scar tissue buildup. While rotating injection sites may contribute to reducing pain over time, the primary benefit is the consistency in insulin absorption to support glycemic control, making choice D less relevant.

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