Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications to be ordered?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Propylthiouracil
• C. Lithium
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propylthiouracil. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is typically used to treat hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Lithium (Choice C) is not used to treat hyperthyroidism but is commonly used to manage bipolar disorder. Metoprolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker that may be used to manage symptoms like tachycardia associated with hyperthyroidism, but it is not the primary treatment for the condition.

2. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

3. A nurse manager in the emergency department considers policy changes in the organization and changes in the community, and tries to predict how these may impact the functioning of the unit. Which of the following decisional activities best describes this manager’s actions?

• A. Resource allocation
• B. Monitoring
• C. Job analysis and redesign
• D. Planning for the future

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Planning for the future. In this scenario, the nurse manager is engaging in decisional activities related to planning for the future. This involves analyzing potential impacts of policy changes and community shifts on the unit's functioning and making decisions based on predictions and foresight. Option A, resource allocation, focuses on distributing resources effectively. Option B, monitoring, involves observing and assessing current activities. Option C, job analysis and redesign, pertains to evaluating and restructuring roles and responsibilities within the unit, which is not the primary focus of the scenario provided.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or uneven heart rate, is crucial to prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as metformin does not typically cause hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or weight gain as its primary side effects.

5. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

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