Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications to be ordered?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Propylthiouracil
• C. Lithium
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propylthiouracil. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is typically used to treat hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Lithium (Choice C) is not used to treat hyperthyroidism but is commonly used to manage bipolar disorder. Metoprolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker that may be used to manage symptoms like tachycardia associated with hyperthyroidism, but it is not the primary treatment for the condition.

2. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. Nurse Jack explains that these medications are only effective if the client:

• A. Prefers to take insulin orally.
• B. Has type 2 diabetes.
• C. Has type 1 diabetes.
• D. Is pregnant and has type 2 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are specifically designed for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Type 1 diabetes requires insulin therapy as the primary treatment due to the absence of endogenous insulin production. Therefore, these medications are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the male client in this scenario. Choice A is incorrect as oral antidiabetic agents are not about preference but rather about treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as being pregnant does not impact the effectiveness of oral antidiabetic agents; they are primarily indicated for type 2 diabetes.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer insulin
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake
• C. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• D. Check blood glucose levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of hyperglycemia, indicating high blood glucose levels. The priority action for the nurse is to check the client's blood glucose levels to assess the severity of hyperglycemia and determine the need for appropriate interventions. Administering insulin (Choice A) may be necessary based on the blood glucose levels but should only be done after confirming the current status. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. While monitoring for signs of dehydration (Choice C) is important in the long term, the immediate action should focus on determining the blood glucose levels first.

4. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when asked for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When working with a manager with poor leadership skills, transferring to a different unit is the best option.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when conversing with coworkers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best way for a follower to 'manage up' is by assisting the manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses. By doing so, the follower helps build a good working relationship with the manager, fostering mutual growth and development. Choice A is not the best option as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, which may not necessarily contribute to 'managing up.' Choice C is incorrect because transferring to a different unit should not be the first solution when dealing with a manager with poor leadership skills; instead, efforts should be made to improve the current working relationship. Choice D, while important, focuses more on showing respect and appreciation rather than actively helping the manager improve, which is key to 'managing up.'

5. A client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention in the body. This causes dilutional hyponatremia, where the sodium levels in the blood become abnormally low. Option A, Hypernatremia, is incorrect because SIADH does not cause elevated sodium levels. Option C, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as SIADH does not directly affect potassium levels. Option D, Hypercalcemia, is also incorrect as SIADH does not impact calcium levels.

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