Nursing Elites

1. A client is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications to be ordered?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Propylthiouracil
• C. Lithium
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Propylthiouracil. Propylthiouracil is an antithyroid medication used to manage hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the synthesis of thyroid hormones. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is typically used to treat hypothyroidism, the opposite of hyperthyroidism. Lithium (Choice C) is not used to treat hyperthyroidism but is commonly used to manage bipolar disorder. Metoprolol (Choice D) is a beta-blocker that may be used to manage symptoms like tachycardia associated with hyperthyroidism, but it is not the primary treatment for the condition.

2. A client with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine. The nurse should teach the client to expect which of the following side effects?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Hypothyroidism
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with hyperthyroidism undergoes radioactive iodine treatment, it often leads to hypothyroidism due to the destruction of thyroid tissue. This occurs as a desired outcome of the treatment to reduce the overactive thyroid function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased heart rate, hypercalcemia, and weight loss are not expected side effects of radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism. Instead, the goal is to suppress the overactive thyroid, leading to a hypothyroid state.

3. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

4. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

• A. Take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin.
• B. Take the NPH insulin first, then the regular insulin.
• C. Mix the insulins in a separate syringe.
• D. Take the regular insulin first and immediately follow it with the NPH insulin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

5. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• D. Serum osmolarity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

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