HESI RN
Biology Practice Test
1. Which of the following makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction?
- A. Punnett square
- B. Chi-square
- C. Microscope
- D. None of these
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Punnett square. A Punnett square is a tool specifically designed to predict the genotype and phenotype combinations of offspring resulting from a particular cross or breeding experiment. It helps in understanding the probability of different genotypes and phenotypes appearing in the offspring. Choice B, Chi-square, is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in a study. Choice C, Microscope, is used for viewing tiny structures and organisms, not for predicting genetic outcomes. Choice D, None of these, is incorrect as Punnett square is a valid tool for predicting genetic outcomes in offspring.
2. At the beginning of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the diploid parent cell have?
- A. 23
- B. 24
- C. 46
- D. 54
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 46. At the start of meiosis, the diploid parent cell contains 46 chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved, resulting in each gamete having 23 chromosomes. Choice A (23) is incorrect because that is the number of chromosomes in a human gamete, not the parent cell. Choice B (24) and Choice D (54) are also incorrect as they do not reflect the correct number of chromosomes in a diploid parent cell at the beginning of meiosis.
3. Which of the following serves as the information processing and administrative center of the cell?
- A. Golgi apparatus
- B. Cytoplasm
- C. Nucleus
- D. Lysosomes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the nucleus. The nucleus is indeed the information processing and administrative center of the cell as it contains the genetic material (DNA) and is responsible for controlling cellular activities. The Golgi apparatus (Choice A) is involved in processing and packaging proteins, the cytoplasm (Choice B) is the fluid that fills the cell and provides a medium for organelles to be suspended, and lysosomes (Choice D) are responsible for digesting waste materials and foreign invaders. Therefore, the nucleus is the most appropriate choice for the given function.
4. The term pleiotropy is best defined as which of the following?
- A. A situation in which one gene remains unexpressed
- B. One gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits
- C. Two genes affected by a single allele
- D. A condition in which multiple genes are missing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pleiotropy is best defined as one gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits. This phenomenon showcases the multifunctionality of genes, where a single gene can have effects on various aspects of an organism's phenotype. Choices A, C, and D do not accurately capture the concept of pleiotropy. Option A refers to gene expression, not pleiotropy. Option C describes genetic interactions but not in the context of pleiotropy. Option D talks about missing genes, which is unrelated to the definition of pleiotropy.
5. A molecule's specific heat is the amount of heat necessary to raise the temperature of 1 gram of that molecule by:
- A. One degree Celsius
- B. Five degrees Celsius
- C. Two degrees Celsius
- D. Four degrees Celsius
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'One degree Celsius.' Specific heat is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram of a substance by one degree Celsius. This property is specific to each substance and is used in various calculations involving heat and temperature changes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because specific heat is always measured per one degree Celsius increase in temperature for one gram of the substance, not five degrees, two degrees, or four degrees.
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