Nursing Elites

1. Healthcare workers must protect themselves against becoming infected with HIV. The Center for Disease Control has issued guidelines for healthcare workers in relation to protection from HIV. These guidelines include which recommendation?

• A. Place HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limit visitors.
• B. Wear gloves when coming in contact with the blood or body fluids of any client.
• C. Conduct mandatory HIV testing of those who work with clients with AIDS.
• D. Freeze HIV blood specimens at -70°F to kill the virus.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The CDC guidelines recommend that healthcare workers wear gloves when coming in contact with blood or body fluids from any client since HIV can be infectious before the client becomes aware of their exposure and/or symptomatic. Choice A is incorrect because placing HIV-positive clients in strict isolation and limiting visitors is not a standard practice for HIV infection control. Choice C is incorrect as mandatory HIV testing for those working with AIDS clients is not a CDC recommendation for routine infection control. Choice D is incorrect because freezing HIV blood specimens at -70°F does not kill the virus; HIV can remain infectious even at very low temperatures.

2. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
• C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Keep the patient in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.

3. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

4. After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will take a laxative every night before going to bed.
• B. I must increase my intake of dietary fiber and fluids.
• C. I shall only use salt when I am cooking my own food.
• D. I’ll eat white bread to minimize gastrointestinal gas.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Clients with PKD often experience constipation, which can be managed by increasing their intake of dietary fiber and fluids. This helps promote bowel regularity. Laxatives should be used cautiously and not as a routine solution. Choice A is incorrect as regular laxative use is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as a low-salt diet is typically advised for clients with PKD, not just limiting salt while cooking. Choice D is incorrect as white bread is low in fiber and not beneficial for managing constipation, which is common in PKD.

5. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?

• A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
• B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
• C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
• D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.

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