Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Hold the dose and notify the provider.
• B. Request an order for a blood glucose level.
• C. Request an order for a BUN and creatinine level.
• D. Request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

2. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:

• A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
• B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
• C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
• D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.

3. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) to treat anemia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Infection.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa (Epogen) is a medication used to treat anemia in clients with chronic renal failure. One common side effect of this medication is hypertension. Epoetin alfa stimulates red blood cell production, which can lead to an increase in blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypertension while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypotension is not typically associated with epoetin alfa administration. Infection is not a direct side effect of epoetin alfa. Edema is also not a common side effect of this medication.

4. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?

• A. Age over 60 years.
• B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. History of heart failure.
• D. Cigarette smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.

5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

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