the nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole tmp smx to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patients extremities the nurse wil
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

2. The nurse is caring for a 70-kg patient who is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 85 mg 4 times daily. The patient reports experiencing ringing in the ears. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) reports experiencing ringing in the ears, it is crucial to consider the possibility of ototoxicity. Ototoxicity is a known adverse effect of aminoglycosides. The appropriate action for the nurse in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss obtaining a serum drug level. This is important to assess the drug concentration in the patient's blood, which can help determine if the ringing in the ears is related to the medication. Decreasing the dose or changing the dosing frequency without assessing the serum drug level may not address the underlying issue and could potentially lead to suboptimal treatment. Ordering a hearing test may be necessary at a later stage if the serum drug level indicates a concern. Therefore, option C, obtaining a serum drug level, is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

4. A client's laboratory findings indicate elevations in thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. The nurse suspects that the client may have hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding is most often associated with hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased pulse rate is commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic rate. Periorbital edema (Choice A) is more commonly associated with conditions like nephrotic syndrome or heart failure, not hyperthyroidism. Atrophied thyroid gland (Choice B) is not typically an assessment finding for hyperthyroidism as the gland is usually enlarged in this condition. Diarrhea stools (Choice D) can occur in hyperthyroidism, but it is not the most common assessment finding associated with the condition.

5. A client is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. The client’s activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) level is 80 seconds. The client’s baseline before the initiation of therapy was 30 seconds. Which action does the nurse anticipate is needed?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse needs to decrease the rate of the heparin infusion. The therapeutic dose of heparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis is designed to keep the aPTT between 1.5 and 2.5 times normal. With the client's aPTT level elevated to 80 seconds from a baseline of 30 seconds, it indicates that the current rate of heparin infusion is too high. Lowering the rate of infusion is necessary to bring the aPTT within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because shutting off the infusion, increasing the rate, or leaving it as is would not address the elevated aPTT level and may lead to complications.

Similar Questions

After confirming that liquids are allowed, which assessment action should the nurse consider a priority for a client who is fully awake after a gastroscopy?
Which of the following is a common complication of hypertension?
A patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) calls to report developing an all-over rash. What action should the nurse instruct the patient to perform?
A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?
When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

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