HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?
- A. Administering antipyretics.
- B. Cooling the patient.
- C. Administering beta-blockers.
- D. Administering antithyroid medications.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.
2. The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure to help prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for a low-protein diet is to manage waste product accumulation rather than reducing the workload on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as electrolyte balance is typically managed through dietary restrictions beyond protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as preventing dehydration is not the primary purpose of a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure.
3. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to
- A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
- B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
- C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
- D. take these medications in the morning.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.
4. A client tells the clinic nurse about experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that the client had sexual intercourse four days ago with a person who was casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Observe the perineal area for a chancroid-like lesion
- B. Obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture
- C. Assess for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation
- D. Identify all sexual partners in the last four days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a urethral drainage specimen for culture is crucial in diagnosing a potential sexually transmitted infection (STI) in this client. While assessing for perineal symptoms like itching, erythema, and excoriation (Choice C) may provide additional information, obtaining a culture is more definitive. Observing for a chancroid-like lesion (Choice A) is not as pertinent as obtaining a culture for a broader diagnostic approach. Identifying all sexual partners in the last four days (Choice D) is important for contact tracing but obtaining a specimen for culture takes priority in this scenario.
5. Which of the following indicates a potential complication of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Inflamed and painful joints.
- B. Blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg.
- C. Stooped posture.
- D. Hemoglobin of 9 g/dL (90 g/L).
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/100 mm Hg indicates hypertension, which is a common complication of diabetes mellitus due to atherosclerotic changes. Hypertension is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular diseases, which are prevalent in individuals with diabetes. Inflamed and painful joints (Choice A) are not directly related to diabetes complications but may be seen in conditions like arthritis. Stooped posture (Choice C) is more indicative of musculoskeletal issues like osteoporosis, not necessarily a typical complication of diabetes. Hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL (90 g/L) (Choice D) could signify anemia, which can occur in diabetes but is not a primary complication often associated with the disease.
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