which of the following is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm
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HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.

2. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and methods to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client cannot modify?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis because it is a natural part of the aging process. While lifestyle factors such as diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can be modified to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, age cannot be altered. Therefore, age is the correct answer. Diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can all be improved or managed through interventions and lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk of atherosclerosis.

3. Which of the following is the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight measurements are the best indicator of fluid balance in a patient with heart failure. Changes in weight reflect fluid retention or loss more accurately than other methods. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential but may not provide a comprehensive picture of fluid status. Skin turgor (choice C) and checking for peripheral edema (choice D) are more indicative of dehydration and fluid overload, respectively, rather than overall fluid balance.

4. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.

5. The healthcare provider is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take next?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When pedal pulses are not palpable, using a Doppler ultrasound device is the appropriate next step to locate the pulse. Auscultating the pulses with a stethoscope (Choice A) is used for assessing blood flow in arteries above the clavicle, not for pedal pulses. Calling the physician (Choice B) may be necessary at a later stage, but initially, using a Doppler ultrasound device to locate the pulse is more appropriate. Inspecting the lower left extremity (Choice D) can provide visual information but will not help in locating the pedal pulses, making it a less suitable option.

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