Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

• A. Administering bronchodilators.
• B. Administering antibiotics.
• C. Administering IV fluids.
• D. Administering corticosteroids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The nurse notes that the provider has ordered serum drug peak and trough levels. The nurse understands that these tests are necessary for which type of drugs?

• A. Drugs with a broad spectrum
• B. Drugs with a narrow spectrum
• C. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index
• D. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic index

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Medications with a narrow therapeutic index have a limited range between the therapeutic dose and a toxic dose. It is important to monitor these medications closely by evaluating regular serum peak and trough levels. Drugs with a narrow spectrum (Choice B) are antibiotics that target only a limited group of bacteria, not related to the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad spectrum (Choice A) cover a wide range of bacteria, but this characteristic does not determine the need for peak and trough monitoring. Drugs with a broad therapeutic index (Choice C) have a wide safety margin between therapeutic and toxic doses, so they typically do not require peak and trough level monitoring.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer doses of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient who has heart failure. The patient reports having blurred vision. The nurse notes a heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 140/78 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medications and request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Give both medications and evaluate serum blood glucose frequently.
• C. Hold the digoxin and notify the provider.
• D. Hold the hydrochlorothiazide and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing symptoms of digoxin toxicity, such as blurred vision and bradycardia. When thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are taken with digoxin, the patient is at risk of digoxin toxicity due to the potential for thiazides to cause hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to hold the digoxin and notify the provider. Administering the medications without addressing the potential toxicity could worsen the patient's condition. Requesting serum electrolytes (Choice A) may be necessary but holding the digoxin takes priority. Evaluating serum blood glucose (Choice B) is not relevant to the current situation. Holding hydrochlorothiazide (Choice D) is not the best option as the primary concern is the digoxin toxicity that needs to be addressed promptly.

4. A client has been taking oral corticosteroids for the past five days because of seasonal allergies. Which assessment finding is of most concern to the nurse?

• A. White blood count of 10,000/mm³.
• B. Serum glucose of 115 mg/dL.
• C. Purulent sputum.
• D. Excessive hunger.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Purulent sputum. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Purulent sputum suggests a possible respiratory infection, which can rapidly progress and lead to complications, making it the most concerning finding. Choice A, a white blood count of 10,000/mm³, is within the normal range and not typically a cause for immediate concern. Choice B, a serum glucose level of 115 mg/dL, is also normal and not directly related to corticosteroid use. Choice D, excessive hunger, is a common side effect of corticosteroids but is not as concerning as a sign of infection indicated by purulent sputum.

5. After a myocardial infarction, why is the hospitalized client taught to move the legs while resting in bed?

• A. Prepare the client for ambulation.
• B. Promote urinary and intestinal elimination.
• C. Prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation.
• D. Decrease the likelihood of pressure ulcer formation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Moving the legs helps prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation by promoting venous return in clients on bed rest. This prevents stasis and clot formation in the lower extremities. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the primary goal of moving the legs is to prevent thrombophlebitis and blood clot formation, rather than preparing for ambulation, promoting elimination, or decreasing pressure ulcer formation. Ambulation preparation involves different exercises, urinary and intestinal elimination are not directly related to leg movements, and pressure ulcer prevention is more related to repositioning and skin care.

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