Nursing Elites

1. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Increase the room temperature.
• B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
• C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
• D. Notify the rapid response team.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

2. A client in a physician’s office has just made an appointment for an exercise stress test. The client should be instructed to:

• A. Wear sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt
• B. Eat a small meal just before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes such as sneakers
• D. Avoid consuming caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes, such as sneakers, for the exercise stress test. This choice ensures safety and stability during the procedure. Wearing sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt (Choice A) would not be appropriate as the client needs to wear light, loose, comfortable clothing. Eating a small meal just before the procedure (Choice B) could lead to discomfort during the test. Avoiding caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure (Choice D) is not a specific instruction related to the attire or preparation for the test.

3. The nurse is taking the vital signs of a client after hemodialysis. Blood pressure is 110/58 mm Hg, pulse 66 beats/min, and temperature is 99.8°F (37.6°C). What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Administer fluids to increase blood pressure.
• B. Check the white blood cell count.
• C. Monitor the client’s temperature.
• D. Connect the client to an electrocardiographic (ECG) monitor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After hemodialysis, it is crucial to monitor the client's temperature because the dialysate is warmed to increase diffusion and prevent hypothermia. The client's temperature might reflect the temperature of the dialysate. There is no need to administer fluids to increase blood pressure as the vital signs are within normal limits. Checking the white blood cell count or connecting the client to an ECG monitor is not necessary based on the information provided.

4. A client scheduled for the surgical creation of an ileal conduit expresses anxiety and asks about having a drainage tube. How should the nurse respond?

• A. I will ask the provider to prescribe you an antianxiety medication.
• B. Would you like to discuss the procedure with your doctor once more?
• C. I think it would be nice to not have to worry about finding a bathroom.
• D. Would you like to speak with someone who has an ileal conduit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate response for the nurse is to offer the client the opportunity to speak with someone who has undergone the same procedure. This allows the client to gain insight, ask questions, and share concerns with someone who has firsthand experience, which can help alleviate anxiety and promote a positive self-image. Seeking an antianxiety medication does not address the client's emotional concerns or promote a positive attitude towards the procedure. Discussing the procedure with the doctor again may provide more information but may not offer the same level of emotional support and understanding as speaking with someone who has lived through the experience. Commenting on the convenience of not having to search for a bathroom minimizes the client's anxiety and overlooks the emotional aspect of the client's concerns.

5. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?

• A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
• B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
• C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
• D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.

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