Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
• B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
• C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
• D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.

2. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is a primary goal of treatment?

• A. Improving oxygenation.
• B. Reducing inflammation.
• C. Improving airflow.
• D. Reducing airway constriction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary goal in the treatment of asthma is to improve airflow. Asthma is characterized by airway inflammation, constriction, and increased mucus production, leading to airflow limitation. Improving airflow helps ensure adequate oxygenation and reduces symptoms. While reducing inflammation and airway constriction are important aspects of asthma management, the primary goal is to optimize airflow to improve respiratory function and quality of life.

3. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
• C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
• D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

4. The healthcare provider is unable to palpate the client's left pedal pulses. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take next?

• A. Auscultate the pulses with a stethoscope.
• B. Call the physician.
• C. Use a Doppler ultrasound device.
• D. Inspect the lower left extremity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When pedal pulses are not palpable, using a Doppler ultrasound device is the appropriate next step to locate the pulse. Auscultating the pulses with a stethoscope (Choice A) is used for assessing blood flow in arteries above the clavicle, not for pedal pulses. Calling the physician (Choice B) may be necessary at a later stage, but initially, using a Doppler ultrasound device to locate the pulse is more appropriate. Inspecting the lower left extremity (Choice D) can provide visual information but will not help in locating the pedal pulses, making it a less suitable option.

5. A client is receiving intermittent bolus feedings via a nasogastric tube. In which position should the nurse place the client once the feeding is complete?

• A. Supine
• B. Head of bed flat
• C. Left lateral position
• D. Head of bed elevated 30 to 45 degrees

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After intermittent bolus feedings through a nasogastric tube, the correct position for the client is to keep the head of the bed flat. This position helps prevent vomiting and aspiration. Placing the client in a supine position (choice A) can increase the risk of aspiration. The left lateral position (choice C) is not typically used after nasogastric tube feedings. Elevating the head of the bed 30 to 45 degrees (choice D) is suitable for continuous tube feedings to reduce the risk of aspiration, but for intermittent bolus feedings, keeping the head of the bed flat is preferred to prevent regurgitation and aspiration.

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