HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
- B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
- C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
- D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.
2. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
- B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
- C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
- D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.
3. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?
- A. 3.0 mEq/L
- B. 3.8 mEq/L
- C. 4.2 mEq/L
- D. 5.1 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
4. Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed for hypertension?
- A. Atenolol
- B. Aspirin
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Metformin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Atenolol. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly prescribed to manage hypertension due to its ability to reduce the heart rate and lower blood pressure. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because aspirin, ibuprofen, and metformin are not typically used as first-line treatments for hypertension. Aspirin is more commonly used for its antiplatelet effects, ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, and metformin is primarily used for managing diabetes.
5. A nurse is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube. During the procedure, the client begins to cough, and the nurse hears a wheeze. The nurse tries to remove the suction catheter from the client’s trachea but is unable to do so. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Call a code
- B. Contact the physician
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Disconnect the suction source from the catheter
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inability to remove a suction catheter is a critical situation that may indicate the presence of bronchospasm and bronchoconstriction, as evidenced by the client coughing and wheezing. The immediate action for the nurse is to disconnect the suction source from the catheter, allowing the catheter to remain in the trachea. By doing so, the nurse can then connect the oxygen source to the catheter to provide essential oxygenation to the client. Contacting the physician is necessary to notify them of the situation and to obtain further orders, typically for an inhaled bronchodilator to relieve the bronchospasm. Administering a bronchodilator without physician's orders is not within the nurse's scope of practice and should not be the first action. Calling a code would be excessive at this point and should only be done if the client's condition deteriorates and immediate resuscitation is required.
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