Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Administering IV fluids
• C. Administering antipyretics
• D. Monitoring blood cultures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is crucial in guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating sepsis but is considered a secondary intervention. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also crucial for sepsis management to restore perfusion and hemodynamic stability. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever, but it is not a primary intervention for managing sepsis.

2. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
• C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
• D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.

3. After educating a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

• A. I can prevent more damage to my kidneys by managing my blood pressure.
• B. If I have increased urination at night, I need to drink less fluid during the day.
• C. I need to see the registered dietitian to discuss limiting my protein intake.
• D. It is important that I take my antihypertensive medications as directed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is incorrect because the client should not restrict fluids during the day due to increased urination at night. Clients with renal disease may be prescribed fluid restrictions, and they should be thoroughly assessed for potential dehydration. To decrease increased nocturnal voiding, clients should consume fluids earlier in the day. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Managing blood pressure is crucial to slow the progression of renal dysfunction. Limiting protein intake is important in renal disease management, and clients should be referred to a dietitian as needed. Taking antihypertensive medications as directed is essential for blood pressure control.

4. In a patient with diabetes, which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia?

• A. Polydipsia
• B. Polyuria
• C. Dry skin
• D. Sweating

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sweating is a common sign of hypoglycemia in patients with diabetes. When blood sugar levels drop too low, the body releases stress hormones like adrenaline, leading to symptoms such as sweating, shakiness, and palpitations. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) and polyuria (excessive urination) are more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels) in diabetes. Dry skin is not a typical symptom of hypoglycemia.

5. During an interview with a client planning elective surgery, the client asks the nurse, 'What is the advantage of having a preferred provider organization insurance plan?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Neither plan allows the selection of healthcare providers or hospitals.
• B. There are fewer healthcare providers to choose from than in an HMO plan.
• C. An individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network.
• D. An individual can become a member of a PPO without belonging to a group.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide is option C, as it highlights a key advantage of a preferred provider organization (PPO) insurance plan. By stating that an individual may select healthcare providers from outside of the PPO network, the nurse emphasizes the flexibility and freedom of choice that PPO plans offer. This feature allows individuals to seek care from providers who are not part of the PPO network, albeit at a higher cost. Option A is incorrect because both PPO and HMO plans allow the selection of healthcare providers, although with different restrictions. Option B is incorrect as PPO plans typically offer a larger selection of healthcare providers compared to HMO plans. Option D is incorrect as membership in a PPO usually requires affiliation with a group, such as through employment or membership in an organization.

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