Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Administering IV fluids
• C. Administering antipyretics
• D. Monitoring blood cultures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is crucial in guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating sepsis but is considered a secondary intervention. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also crucial for sepsis management to restore perfusion and hemodynamic stability. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever, but it is not a primary intervention for managing sepsis.

2. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?

• A. Report the findings to the surgeon.
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Apply manual pressure to the bladder.
• D. Increase the IV flow rate for 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.

3. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with a high risk of stroke?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Diabetes.
• C. Obesity.
• D. Smoking.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension is the correct answer. Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a major risk factor for stroke because it puts increased pressure on blood vessels in the brain, making them more prone to damage and increasing the likelihood of a stroke. While diabetes, obesity, and smoking are also risk factors for stroke, hypertension is the most commonly associated condition with a high risk of stroke due to its direct impact on the blood vessels.

4. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

5. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

Similar Questions