HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A. Smoking
- B. Asthma
- C. Allergies
- D. Chronic bronchitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.
2. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?
- A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
- B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
- C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
- D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.
3. A client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving discharge instructions from a nurse. Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment.
- B. I’ll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia.
- C. The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted.
- D. The need to watch for bleeding with anticoagulants.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statements indicating a proper understanding of the teaching include the need for antibiotics for dental work, the potential need to adjust pain medication doses, and the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels. The statement about watching for bleeding with anticoagulants is not directly related to CKD and discharge instructions for this condition. Therefore, option A is correct, as it addresses relevant concerns for a client with CKD, while the other options are either unrelated or not specifically mentioned in the scenario.
4. A client who is mouth breathing is receiving oxygen by face mask. The nursing assistant asks the nurse why a water bottle is attached to the oxygen tubing near the wall oxygen outlet. The nurse responds that the primary purpose of the water is to:
- A. Prevent the client from getting a nosebleed
- B. Give the client added fluid by way of the respiratory tree
- C. Humidify the oxygen that is bypassing the client’s nose
- D. Prevent fluid loss from the lungs during mouth breathing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The purpose of the water bottle is to humidify the oxygen that is bypassing the nose during mouth breathing. When a client breathes through the mouth, the oxygen delivered by the face mask bypasses the natural humidification provided by the nasal passages. Therefore, the water bottle attachment helps to add moisture to the oxygen, preventing dryness and irritation to the respiratory tract. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Clients breathing through the mouth are not at risk for nosebleeds, do not receive added fluid through the respiratory tree, and do not experience fluid loss from the lungs due to mouth breathing.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Clear dialysate inflow.
- C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician as it is a concerning sign of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneum. Peritonitis is a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires prompt medical intervention to prevent further complications. Clear dialysate outflow and inflow are normal findings in peritoneal dialysis and do not indicate an immediate need for intervention. Increased blood pressure, while important to monitor, is not directly related to peritoneal dialysis and would not be the priority over the potentially life-threatening complication of peritonitis.
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