Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Smoking
• B. Asthma
• C. Allergies
• D. Chronic bronchitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is beginning oxygen therapy asks the nurse why the flow rate cannot be increased to more than 2 L/min. The nurse responds that this would be harmful because it could:

• A. Be drying to nasal passages
• B. Decrease the client’s oxygen-based respiratory drive
• C. Increase the risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages
• D. Decrease the client’s carbon dioxide–based respiratory drive

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing the oxygen flow rate beyond 2 L/min for a client with COPD can decrease the client's oxygen-based respiratory drive. In clients with COPD, the natural respiratory drive is based on the level of oxygen instead of carbon dioxide, as seen in healthy individuals. Increasing the oxygen level independently can suppress the drive to breathe, leading to respiratory failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because drying of nasal passages, increased risk of pneumonia due to drier air passages, and decreasing the carbon dioxide-based respiratory drive are not the primary concerns associated with increasing the oxygen flow rate in a client with COPD.

3. A nurse is teaching a nursing student how to measure a carotid pulse. The nurse should tell the student to measure the pulse on only one side of the client’s neck primarily because:

• A. It is unnecessary to use both hands
• B. Feeling dual pulsations may lead to an incorrect measurement
• C. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could occlude the trachea
• D. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to drop

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Applying pressure to both carotid arteries at the same time is contraindicated. Excess pressure to the baroreceptors in the carotid vessels could cause the heart rate and blood pressure to reflexively drop. Palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously could also interfere with the flow of blood to the brain, possibly causing dizziness and syncope. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. It is necessary to use both hands to measure the carotid pulse accurately. Feeling dual pulsations does not lead to an incorrect measurement, and palpating both carotid pulses simultaneously does not occlude the trachea.

4. A nurse administers scopolamine as prescribed to a client in preparation for surgery. For which side effect of this medication does the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Pupil constriction
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Complaints of dry mouth
• D. Complaints of feeling sweaty

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Complaints of feeling sweaty.' Scopolamine, an anticholinergic medication, commonly causes the side effect of decreased sweating, not increased urine output or pupil constriction. While dry mouth is a possible side effect, it is less likely than the altered sweating pattern. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for complaints of feeling sweaty due to the potential side effect of decreased sweating associated with scopolamine.

5. A client has a urine specific gravity of 1.040. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a urine culture and sensitivity.
• B. Place the client on restricted fluids.
• C. Assess the client’s creatinine level.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.040 is higher than the normal range (1.005 to 1.030) and can indicate dehydration, decreased kidney blood flow, or the presence of antidiuretic hormone. In this situation, the priority action should be to increase the client's fluid intake to address the high specific gravity. Obtaining a urine culture, placing the client on restricted fluids, or assessing the creatinine level would not directly address the underlying issue of high urine specific gravity caused by dehydration or other factors.

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