which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd
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Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. Which of the following is a common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Smoking is the correct answer as it is a well-established common cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smoking leads to long-term damage to the lungs, contributing to the development of COPD. Choice B, asthma, is not a cause but a separate respiratory condition characterized by airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. Allergies, choice C, are not a direct cause of COPD but can exacerbate symptoms in individuals with existing COPD. Chronic bronchitis, choice D, is a type of COPD, not a cause of COPD itself, making it an incorrect choice in this context.

2. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

3. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to immediately contact the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Periorbital edema would not typically be associated with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) and could indicate other underlying issues that require immediate attention. Flank pain and an enlarged abdomen are common findings in PKD due to kidney enlargement and displacement of other organs. Bloody or cloudy urine can result from cyst rupture or infection, which are expected in PKD. Therefore, periorbital edema is the most alarming finding in this scenario and warrants prompt notification of the healthcare provider.

4. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.

5. An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client’s laboratory work that the client’s hematocrit is normal?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47%. A hematocrit value of 43% falls within this normal range, indicating normal levels of red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are low hematocrit values and are considered below the normal range for adult females, signifying potential anemia or other health issues.

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