Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity?

• A. The nurse ensures that the patient is treated with respect and that their personal beliefs and values are considered in their care.
• B. The nurse maintains the patient's dignity by ensuring privacy during personal care activities.
• C. The nurse ensures that the patient's personal information is kept private and only shared with those directly involved in their care.
• D. The nurse ensures that the patient is involved in decisions about their care and that their preferences are respected.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse's role in maintaining patient dignity goes beyond just privacy during personal care activities. It involves treating the patient with respect, considering their personal beliefs and values in their care. While privacy is important for dignity, respecting personal beliefs and values is equally crucial. Choice B focuses solely on privacy, overlooking the broader aspects of dignity maintenance. Choices C and D, although important in patient care, do not fully capture the comprehensive approach needed for maintaining patient dignity as described in choice A.

2. Following a unilateral adrenalectomy, Nurse Betty would assess for hyperkalemia indicated by which of the following signs?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Tremors
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a classic manifestation of hyperkalemia, an elevated level of potassium in the blood. After an adrenalectomy, where one adrenal gland is removed, there may be a risk of hyperkalemia due to altered hormone regulation. Tremors (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia but may be seen in conditions like hypocalcemia. Diaphoresis (Choice C) and constipation (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hyperkalemia. Diaphoresis is excessive sweating and constipation is a common gastrointestinal issue, neither directly related to potassium imbalances.

3. In a male client with a history of hypertension diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the hypertension is caused by excessive hormone secretion from which of the following glands?

• A. Adrenal cortex
• B. Pancreas
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Parathyroid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary hyperaldosteronism is characterized by excessive secretion of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex. Aldosterone, a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by promoting sodium and water retention in the kidneys. The adrenal medulla secretes catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are involved in the 'fight or flight' response, not in regulating blood pressure. The pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones involved in blood sugar regulation, not blood pressure. The parathyroid glands regulate calcium levels in the blood, not blood pressure.

4. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

5. Clinical nursing assessment for a patient with microangiopathy who has manifested impaired peripheral arterial circulation includes all of the following except:

• A. Integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots on the lower extremities.
• B. Observation for paleness of the lower extremities.
• C. Observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds.
• D. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a patient with impaired peripheral arterial circulation, clinical nursing assessment should include integumentary inspection for the presence of brown spots, observation for paleness of the lower extremities, and observation for blanching of the feet after the legs are elevated for 60 seconds. Palpation for increased pulse volume in the arteries of the lower extremities is not consistent with impaired circulation, as pulses are typically diminished in this condition. Therefore, palpation for increased pulse volume is not relevant to the assessment of impaired peripheral arterial circulation.

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