Nursing Elites

1. A patient with acute congestive heart failure is receiving high doses of a diuretic. On assessment, the nurse notes flat neck veins, generalized muscle weakness, and diminished deep tendon reflexes. Suspecting hyponatremia, what additional signs would the nurse expect to note in this patient if hyponatremia were present?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Decreased urinary output
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Increased specific gravity of the urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a patient with hyponatremia, hyperactive bowel sounds are expected due to increased gastrointestinal motility. Dry skin (Choice A) is not a typical sign of hyponatremia. Decreased urinary output (Choice B) is more commonly associated with conditions like dehydration or renal issues, not specifically hyponatremia. Increased specific gravity of the urine (Choice D) is a sign of concentrated urine, which is not a characteristic finding in hyponatremia.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or uneven heart rate, is crucial to prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as metformin does not typically cause hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or weight gain as its primary side effects.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention in the treatment of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. This is essential for fluid resuscitation to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering intravenous insulin can lead to further potassium depletion without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Monitoring serum potassium levels is important but should follow fluid resuscitation to avoid life-threatening hypokalemia. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) is necessary to assess the acid-base status but is not the initial priority when managing DKA.

4. A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Osteoporosis
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with hyperparathyroidism is at risk for osteoporosis, not hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, or hyponatremia. Hyperparathyroidism results in increased levels of parathyroid hormone, which causes excessive breakdown of bone tissue to release calcium into the bloodstream. This process can lead to weakened bones and an increased risk of osteoporosis. Hypocalcemia is unlikely in hyperparathyroidism as the condition is characterized by elevated calcium levels due to the abnormal activity of the parathyroid glands. Hypokalemia and hyponatremia are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism; they are more commonly linked to other conditions affecting potassium and sodium levels in the body.

5. Effective leaders must communicate a vision for the future. Which of the following is the best method for communicating a vision for the future?

• A. Involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision.
• B. Encourage staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements.
• C. Critically analyze and discuss advances in practice with other nurses on staff.
• D. Actively listen to the recommendations of others.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best method for communicating a vision for the future is to involve others in creating the vision and connect daily work tasks to the vision. This approach fosters ownership and commitment among team members, as they feel part of the vision-building process and understand how their daily tasks contribute to achieving that vision. Choice B, encouraging staff nurses to openly discuss practice and possible improvements, is important for fostering communication but doesn't directly address creating and communicating a vision. Choice C, critically analyzing and discussing advances in practice with other nurses, focuses on professional development and knowledge sharing rather than specifically communicating a future vision. Choice D, actively listening to recommendations, is valuable for gathering input but may not be sufficient on its own for effectively communicating a future vision.

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