Nursing Elites

1. The nurse in a community health clinic is interviewing a female client who has three children. The client tells the nurse that she has a new man in her life, with whom she is having a sexual relationship, and that they both smoke cigarettes. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Oral contraceptives should be started to prevent an unwanted pregnancy
• B. Children are more prone to upper respiratory infections if exposed to smoke at home
• C. Cigarette smoking increases the risk for peptic ulcers and emphysema
• D. A diaphragm and condom provide effective contraception when used together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide the client in this situation is that using both a diaphragm and a condom together provides effective contraception and also protects against sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). While oral contraceptives can help prevent unwanted pregnancies, using a barrier method like a diaphragm and a condom is crucial in this scenario where the client is engaging in a new sexual relationship. Choice B is important information but is not the top priority in this context. Choice C, although relevant, does not address the immediate concern of contraception and STD prevention. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which intervention should the nurse include to manage the client's nausea?

• A. Administer an antiemetic before meals
• B. Provide frequent mouth care
• C. Encourage small, frequent meals
• D. Offer clear liquids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic before meals is a crucial intervention to manage chemotherapy-induced nausea. Antiemetics help prevent or reduce nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Providing frequent mouth care (choice B) is important for managing oral mucositis but not specifically for nausea. Encouraging small, frequent meals (choice C) and offering clear liquids (choice D) are beneficial strategies for managing gastrointestinal side effects but may not be as effective in controlling nausea as administering antiemetics.

3. A client in acute renal failure has a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L. Based on this finding, the nurse should anticipate implementing which action?

• A. Administer an IV of normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin subcutaneously.
• B. Administer a retention enema of Kayexalate.
• C. Add 40 mEq of KCL (potassium chloride) to the present IV solution.
• D. Administer a lidocaine bolus IV push.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In acute renal failure with a high serum potassium level, the priority intervention is to lower potassium levels to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Administering a retention enema of Kayexalate is the correct action as it helps lower high potassium levels by exchanging sodium for potassium in the intestines. Options A, C, and D are incorrect. Administering normal saline rapidly and NPH insulin or adding more potassium to the IV solution can further increase potassium levels, worsening the condition. Lidocaine is not indicated for treating hyperkalemia.

4. The nurse is administering total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 75 ml/hour to a client who had a bowel resection 4 days ago. Which laboratory finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Blood glucose of 140 mg/dL
• B. White blood cell count of 8000/mm³
• C. Serum potassium of 3.8 mEq/L
• D. Serum calcium of 7.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A serum calcium level of 7.8 mg/dL requires immediate intervention due to the risk of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can lead to serious complications such as tetany, seizures, and cardiac arrhythmias. The other laboratory findings are within normal limits or slightly elevated, which do not pose an immediate threat to the client's health in this scenario.

5. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

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