HESI RN TEST BANK

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

Which meal option should the nurse recommend for a client with renal disease who is following a low-protein diet?

    A. Grilled chicken with steamed vegetables

    B. Tofu stir-fry with rice

    C. Pasta with marinara sauce

    D. Baked salmon with quinoa

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pasta with marinara sauce. Clients with renal disease following a low-protein diet should opt for lower-protein options. Pasta with marinara sauce is a suitable choice as it is lower in protein compared to grilled chicken, tofu, or salmon. Grilled chicken, tofu, and salmon are higher in protein content and are not ideal for individuals following a low-protein diet for renal disease as they may strain the kidneys.

The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is working with the nurse?

  • A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
  • B. Document the absence of reaction
  • C. Notify the nurse if the client develops a fever
  • D. Continue to measure the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring vital signs throughout a transfusion is critical, as reactions can occur later in the process. The UAP should continue to check vital signs regularly to ensure that any delayed reaction is promptly detected. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on monitoring. Documenting the absence of a reaction (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as ongoing vital sign monitoring. Notifying the nurse if the client develops a fever (Choice C) is relevant but should not be the UAP's primary responsibility during the transfusion.

While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

  • A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
  • B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
  • C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
  • D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.

The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. After administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?

  • A. Bowel sounds
  • B. Heart rate
  • C. Arterial blood gases
  • D. Apnea episodes

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Surfactant therapy is used to improve lung function and gas exchange in premature infants with respiratory distress. Monitoring arterial blood gases is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation. While monitoring heart rate is important in neonatal care, assessing arterial blood gases will provide direct information regarding the infant's oxygenation status post-surfactant administration. Bowel sounds are not directly related to the respiratory distress symptoms described, and monitoring apnea episodes, although important in preterm infants, is not the most crucial assessment immediately following surfactant administration.

Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?

  • A. Check the client's potassium levels
  • B. Review the client's medication list
  • C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
  • D. Monitor the client's urine output

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.

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