HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
- B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
- C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
- D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.
2. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?
- A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
- B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
- C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
- D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.
3. The nurse is caring for a client following a craniotomy. Which finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Pupils equal and reactive to light.
- B. Sudden increase in urine output.
- C. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
- D. Increase in blood pressure by 20 mmHg.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.' This finding should be reported immediately as it could indicate a serious complication such as increased intracranial pressure or respiratory compromise. In a post-craniotomy client, changes in breath sounds may be a sign of developing issues that need prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-craniotomy period. Pupils equal and reactive to light are expected findings, a sudden increase in urine output may require monitoring but not immediate reporting, and a small increase in blood pressure may not be alarming unless it is significantly high or accompanied by other concerning signs.
4. A client with a history of adrenal insufficiency is admitted with acute adrenal crisis. The client complains of nausea and joint pain, vital signs show a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138, and blood pressure of 80/60. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In acute adrenal crisis, the priority intervention is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus to address the hypotension (blood pressure of 80/60) and help stabilize the client's condition. Adequate fluid volume is crucial in managing adrenal insufficiency crisis. Options A, C, and D do not directly address the hypotension and fluid volume depletion that are critical in this situation. Analgesics, antipyretics, and cooling blankets may be considered later, but the immediate focus should be on fluid resuscitation.
5. An unresponsive male victim of a diving accident is brought to the emergency department where immediate surgery is required to save his life. No family members are available. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ask the friend to sign an informed consent.
- B. Notify the unit manager that a court order is needed.
- C. Continue providing life support until a guardian is found.
- D. Proceed with surgery preparation without consent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In emergency situations where immediate surgery is required to save a patient's life and no family members are available, consent can be waived to proceed with necessary interventions. The priority in this scenario is to proceed with surgery preparation without waiting for consent, as any delay could jeopardize the patient's life. Asking the friend to sign informed consent or notifying the unit manager for a court order would cause unnecessary delays, which are not advisable in this critical situation. Continuing life support until a guardian is found is not the most appropriate action when immediate surgical intervention is necessary.
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