Nursing Elites

1. The preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils.
• B. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis.
• C. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds.
• D. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early indicators of shock. In a critically ill client, these findings suggest a decrease in tissue perfusion. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial to prevent the progression of shock and its complications.

2. An otherwise healthy 45-year-old man presents with severe hematochezia and moderate abdominal cramping since this morning. A barium enema one year ago was normal. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 and pulse is 100 while lying; when standing, the blood pressure is 110/76 and pulse is 136. His hematocrit is 34. What is the most likely cause of bleeding?

• A. Diverticular bleed
• B. Duodenal ulcer
• C. Inflammatory bowel disease
• D. Vascular ectasia (watermelon stomach)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's presentation with hematochezia, moderate abdominal cramping, and hemodynamic changes (increased pulse on standing) suggests an upper gastrointestinal bleed. The drop in blood pressure and rise in pulse rate when standing indicate orthostatic hypotension, which is a sign of significant blood loss. The absence of melena does not rule out an upper GI bleed. Ulcers in the duodenal bulb can erode into the gastroduodenal artery, leading to brisk blood loss. A normal barium enema one year ago makes diverticular bleeding less likely. Inflammatory bowel disease usually does not cause severe acute GI bleeding unless there is ulceration into a vessel. Vascular ectasia, like watermelon stomach, typically presents with chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anemia, more common in older women. The absence of vomiting and the presence of hematochezia make Mallory-Weiss tear less likely in this case.

3. A 48-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Laboratory tests reveal high TSH and low free T4 levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Hypothyroidism
• B. Hyperthyroidism
• C. Thyroiditis
• D. Thyroid cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The scenario describes a classic presentation of hypothyroidism, supported by the laboratory findings of high TSH and low free T4 levels. In hypothyroidism, the body's thyroid hormone levels are inadequate, leading to symptoms like fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. High TSH is a compensatory mechanism by the body to increase thyroid hormone production, which is deficient, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, the correct answer is hypothyroidism.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy. Which intervention should the nurse implement to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 6 liters/minute if the client is short of breath.
• B. Instruct the client to breathe deeply and cough frequently.
• C. Use a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate.
• D. Encourage the client to remove the oxygen when eating or drinking.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using a nasal cannula to deliver oxygen at a low flow rate is the appropriate intervention for clients with COPD receiving oxygen therapy. High flow rates can lead to respiratory depression in COPD patients. This intervention helps maintain a safe and controlled oxygen delivery to prevent potential complications associated with high oxygen flow rates.

5. A 70-year-old man presents with weight loss, jaundice, and a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Laboratory tests reveal elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Gallstones
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Pancreatic cancer
• D. Primary biliary cirrhosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The presentation of a 70-year-old man with weight loss, jaundice, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant, and elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase levels is highly suggestive of pancreatic cancer. This clinical scenario, known as Courvoisier's sign, points towards a pancreatic malignancy due to biliary obstruction. Gallstones could cause similar symptoms but would typically not present with a palpable mass. Hepatitis usually does not present with a palpable mass and would have different laboratory findings. Primary biliary cirrhosis typically presents differently with chronic cholestasis without the presence of a palpable mass or a pancreatic lesion.

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