Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This action helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after providing immediate wound care. Option C, administering pain medication, is not the priority when there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. Option D, covering the wound with an abdominal binder, is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the protruding bowel and potential risk for infection.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, International Normalized Ratio (INR). While INR is commonly used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, in the case of heparin therapy, the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the preferred test. Choice A, Prothrombin Time (PT), measures the activity of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the best choice for monitoring heparin therapy. Choice D, Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT), is similar to PTT and is used to monitor heparin therapy, but PTT is the more specific test. Therefore, monitoring PTT is crucial in determining the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy.

3. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?

• A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
• C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
• D. White blood cell count of 7000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.

5. Which client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesaemia?

• A. A young adult client with intractable vomiting due to food poisoning
• B. A client who developed hyperparathyroidism in late adolescence
• C. A middle-aged male client in renal failure following an unsuccessful kidney transplant
• D. A female client who excessively consumes simple carbohydrates

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients in renal failure are at high risk for hypomagnesemia due to their impaired kidney function. Renal failure can lead to decreased excretion of magnesium, resulting in its buildup in the body and potential hypomagnesemia. This client requires careful nursing assessment for signs and symptoms of hypomagnesemia to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly associated with renal failure and its impact on magnesium levels. Intractable vomiting, hyperparathyroidism, and excessive consumption of simple carbohydrates may have other health implications but are not as strongly linked to hypomagnesemia as renal failure.

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