Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-op following abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This action helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after providing immediate wound care. Option C, administering pain medication, is not the priority when there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. Option D, covering the wound with an abdominal binder, is not appropriate for this situation as it does not address the protruding bowel and potential risk for infection.

2. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

• A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
• B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
• C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
• D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
• B. Administer a glucagon injection
• C. Provide a snack with protein
• D. Encourage the client to rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. This will help raise the blood glucose levels quickly. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia as protein takes longer to raise blood glucose levels. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be beneficial after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to raise the blood glucose levels promptly.

4. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge who has a prescription for enoxaparin (Lovenox) self-administration. What information is most important for the nurse to provide the client about this medication?

• A. Self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection
• B. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K
• C. Signs of bleeding to report to the healthcare provider
• D. Proper disposal of used syringes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teaching the client about self-administration techniques for subcutaneous injection is crucial for safe and effective use of enoxaparin. Option A is the correct answer as it directly addresses the client's need to know how to properly administer the medication. Options B, C, and D are important aspects of care but are not the most critical information needed for the client's self-administration of enoxaparin.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes amoxicillin (Amoxil) 1.5 grams PO daily, in equally divided doses to be administered every 8 hours. The medication is available in a bottle labeled Amoxicillin (Amoxil) suspension 200 mg/5 ml. How many ml should the nurse administer every 8 hours?

• A. 10 ml
• B. 12.5 ml
• C. 15 ml
• D. 17.5 ml

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dosage, first, determine the total daily dose: 1.5 grams = 1500 mg. Since the medication is 200 mg/5 ml, for 1500 mg, the nurse needs to administer 1500/200 = 7.5 times the 5 ml dose. Therefore, 7.5 x 5 ml = 37.5 ml total daily dose. To administer this every 8 hours, divide 37.5 ml by 3 (8 hours intervals in a day) to get 12.5 ml to be administered every 8 hours. Choice A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation of the dose based on the prescription and the available concentration.

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