Nursing Elites

1. A client with hyperparathyroidism is preparing for surgery. Which preoperative lab finding is most important to report?

• A. Elevated serum calcium.
• B. Decreased serum albumin.
• C. Elevated serum potassium.
• D. Elevated serum magnesium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated serum calcium. In hyperparathyroidism, elevated calcium levels can lead to complications such as kidney stones, bone pain, and fractures. During surgery, high calcium levels can affect neuromuscular function, cardiac function, and blood clotting. Therefore, it is crucial to report elevated serum calcium levels preoperatively to prevent potential surgical complications. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with hyperparathyroidism and are less likely to impact the surgical outcome in this scenario.

2. A male client with HIV receiving saquinavir PO in combination with other antiretrovirals reports constant hunger and thirst but is losing weight. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a glucometer to check glucose level.
• B. Teach client to measure weight accurately.
• C. Explain that medication dose may need to be increased.
• D. Reassure client weight will increase as viral load decreases.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to use a glucometer to check the client's glucose level. Saquinavir, an HIV medication, can lead to hyperglycemia, which may cause symptoms like constant hunger and thirst while losing weight. Checking the glucose level will help assess for hyperglycemia. Choice B is not the priority in this situation as the client's weight loss is a concerning symptom that needs immediate attention. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the medication dose without assessing the glucose level first could exacerbate hyperglycemia. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the symptoms of constant hunger, thirst, and weight loss, which may indicate a more urgent issue like hyperglycemia.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with severe peripheral arterial disease (PAD). The client reports a history of rest ischemia, with leg pain that occurs during the night. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Elevate the legs on pillows
• B. Encourage ambulation and leg exercises
• C. Provide a heating pad for warmth
• D. Offer cold packs when the pain occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Providing warmth can help dilate peripheral vessels and increase blood flow, relieving ischemic pain. In PAD, where there is already compromised blood flow, elevating the legs or applying cold therapy could worsen ischemic pain by further reducing blood flow to the extremities. Encouraging ambulation and leg exercises may be beneficial in other conditions but not suitable for clients with severe PAD experiencing rest ischemia.

4. A client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line has a fever. What client assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Inspect the PICC insertion site for signs of infection.
• B. Observe the antecubital fossa for inflammation.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds for signs of respiratory distress.
• D. Check for signs of phlebitis or thrombosis along the catheter site.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Observing the antecubital fossa for inflammation is crucial in clients with a PICC line and fever. Inflammation at the site can indicate infection or complications related to the PICC line. Auscultating lung sounds (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Checking for phlebitis or thrombosis (choice D) is relevant but does not address the immediate concern of identifying infection or complications at the insertion site. Inspecting the PICC insertion site (choice A) is also important but observing the antecubital fossa provides a more direct assessment of potential issues with the PICC line.

5. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

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