Nursing Elites

1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

2. A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated creatinine level. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for dialysis.
• C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for dialysis. Clients with acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine may require dialysis to support kidney function and remove waste products from the blood. Preparing for dialysis ensures timely intervention in preventing further complications. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may worsen the client's condition by further compromising kidney function. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority over preparing for dialysis. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for dialysis to address the acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine level.

3. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

4. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
• B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
• C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
• D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.

5. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

• A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
• B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
• C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
• D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

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