which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank

1. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

2. In a patient with anemia, which of the following is the primary symptom to assess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath. In a patient with anemia, the primary symptom to assess is shortness of breath. Anemia leads to a reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in tissues not receiving adequate oxygen. This can manifest as shortness of breath, especially during physical exertion. Fever (Choice A), chest pain (Choice B), and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not typically primary symptoms of anemia. Fever may suggest an infection, chest pain can be indicative of cardiac issues, and muscle cramps may be related to electrolyte imbalances or neuromuscular disorders.

3. A client was admitted for a myocardial infarction and cardiogenic shock 2 days ago. Which laboratory test result should a nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cardiogenic shock, decreased renal perfusion leads to an elevated BUN. Choice A is correct. Creatinine remains normal in cardiogenic shock as it signifies kidney damage, which has not occurred in this case. A low BUN indicates overhydration, malnutrition, or liver damage, which are not typically seen in cardiogenic shock. A low BUN/creatinine ratio is associated with fluid volume excess or acute renal tubular acidosis, not specifically indicative of cardiogenic shock.

4. The patient is beginning furosemide and has started a 2-week course of a steroid medication. What should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient is taking furosemide and a steroid medication, there is an increased risk of potassium loss due to the interaction between the two drugs. Consuming licorice should be avoided as it can worsen potassium loss. Reporting a urine output less than 600 mL/24 hours is not directly related to the drug interaction and may not be necessary. Taking furosemide at bedtime is not the primary concern when a patient is concurrently on a steroid medication and furosemide. Therefore, obtaining an order for a potassium supplement is the most appropriate recommendation to counteract the potential potassium loss.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypothermia is being admitted to the hospital by a nurse. Which of the following signs does the nurse anticipate that this client will exhibit?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypothermia decreases the heart rate and blood pressure due to reduced metabolic needs of the body. With lower metabolic demands, the heart's workload decreases, leading to reductions in both heart rate and blood pressure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hypothermia typically results in a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure, not an increase.

Similar Questions

The best indicator that the client has learned how to give an insulin self-injection correctly is when the client can:
A client expresses difficulty voiding in public places. How should the nurse respond?
Which of the following is a common complication of hypertension?
The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses