HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client taking furosemide (Lasix) reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. What dose of medication are you taking?
- B. Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
- C. Have you lost weight recently?
- D. At what time do you take your medication?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse needs to determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix. Due to the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia, which may be contributing to the sleep difficulties. Asking about the dose of medication (Choice A) is important but addressing the timing of intake is more crucial in this situation. Inquiring about potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is relevant for clients on potassium-sparing diuretics. Weight loss (Choice C) may be relevant for monitoring the client's overall health but is not directly related to the sleep issue in this case.
2. A client who underwent surgery and experienced significant blood loss is being cared for by a nurse. Which findings by the nurse should prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours
- B. Large amount of sediment in the urine
- C. A & B
- D. Amber, odorless urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse must monitor for signs of acute kidney injury in a postoperative client who had major blood loss. Low urine output, presence of sediment in the urine, and low blood pressure should raise concerns and be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. Postoperatively, assessing urine characteristics is crucial. Sediment, hematuria, and urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for 3 to 4 hours should be reported. While a urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours is low, it should be compared to the recommended 0.5 mL/kg/hour over a longer period. Perfusion to the kidneys is a priority, hence the importance of addressing low blood pressure. Amber, odorless urine is considered normal and does not indicate an immediate concern for acute kidney injury, unlike low urine output and presence of sediment.
3. A client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on the thorax tells the nurse about having difficulty sleeping. What is the probable cause of this problem?
- A. Frequent cough
- B. Pain
- C. Nocturia
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pain. Pain is a common and significant symptom of Herpes Zoster (shingles) that can result in difficulty sleeping. The pain associated with shingles can be intense and persistent, making it challenging for the client to find a comfortable position to sleep. Nocturia (choice C), which is excessive urination during the night, is not directly related to difficulty sleeping in this context. While both frequent cough (choice A) and dyspnea (choice D) can cause sleep disturbances, in a client with Herpes Zoster on the thorax, pain is the most probable cause of sleep difficulty.
4. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
- B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
- C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
- D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.
5. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about dietary restrictions by the nurse. Which of the following food items should the client avoid?
- A. Apples
- B. Bananas
- C. Chicken
- D. Rice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which should be limited in clients with chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia. Apples (choice A), chicken (choice C), and rice (choice D) are not typically restricted in clients with chronic renal failure. Apples and rice are lower in potassium, while chicken is a good source of lean protein, which is usually encouraged in these clients to meet their protein needs without excess potassium intake.
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