HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client taking furosemide (Lasix) reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. What dose of medication are you taking?
- B. Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
- C. Have you lost weight recently?
- D. At what time do you take your medication?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse needs to determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix. Due to the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia, which may be contributing to the sleep difficulties. Asking about the dose of medication (Choice A) is important but addressing the timing of intake is more crucial in this situation. Inquiring about potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is relevant for clients on potassium-sparing diuretics. Weight loss (Choice C) may be relevant for monitoring the client's overall health but is not directly related to the sleep issue in this case.
2. The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should notify the physician of which of the following findings?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is an indication of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal finding indicating proper dialysis function and should not raise concern. Decreased urine output may be expected in a client undergoing dialysis due to the removal of excess fluids from the body. Increased blood pressure is a common complication in clients with kidney disease but is not directly related to cloudy dialysate outflow.
3. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
- B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
- C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
- D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man†syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.
4. A client with diabetes begins to cry and says, 'I just cannot stand the thought of having to give myself a shot every day.' Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. If you do not give yourself your insulin shots, you will die.
- B. We can teach your daughter to give the shots so you will not have to do it.
- C. I can arrange to have a home care nurse give you the shots every day.
- D. What is it about giving yourself the insulin shots that bothers you?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is option D because it is an open-ended question that allows the client to express their feelings and concerns. This approach facilitates a therapeutic communication process by encouraging the client to verbalize their thoughts, emotions, and fears related to giving themselves insulin shots. Option A is incorrect as it uses a fear-inducing statement that may not be helpful in addressing the client's emotional needs. Option B assumes involvement of a family member without exploring the client's feelings further. Option C offers a solution without addressing the client's underlying concerns and emotions, potentially overlooking essential aspects of client-centered care.
5. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?
- A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
- B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
- C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
- D. 1 AM, while sleeping.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.
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