HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A client taking furosemide (Lasix) reports difficulty sleeping. What question is important for the nurse to ask the client?
- A. What dose of medication are you taking?
- B. Are you eating foods rich in potassium?
- C. Have you lost weight recently?
- D. At what time do you take your medication?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse needs to determine at what time of day the client takes the Lasix. Due to the diuretic effect of Lasix, clients should take the medication in the morning to prevent nocturia, which may be contributing to the sleep difficulties. Asking about the dose of medication (Choice A) is important but addressing the timing of intake is more crucial in this situation. Inquiring about potassium-rich foods (Choice B) is relevant for clients on potassium-sparing diuretics. Weight loss (Choice C) may be relevant for monitoring the client's overall health but is not directly related to the sleep issue in this case.
2. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
3. A client with cholelithiasis is admitted with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Distended, hard, and rigid abdomen
- B. Clay-colored stool
- C. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder
- D. Bile-stained emesis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider in a client with cholelithiasis and jaundice due to common bile duct obstruction is a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen. These signs may indicate a possible surgical emergency, such as a complication like gallbladder perforation or peritonitis, which require immediate intervention. Clay-colored stool is associated with obstructive jaundice but does not indicate an acute surgical emergency. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder (referred pain from the diaphragm) and bile-stained emesis may also be seen in cholelithiasis but are not as urgent as a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen.
4. A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client’s spouse about the kidney-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components should be discussed in the teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Lower sodium
- B. Lower potassium
- C. Higher phosphorus
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI), clients may require tube feedings with kidney-specific formulas. These formulations are lower in sodium and potassium, which are crucial considerations due to impaired kidney function. Higher phosphorus content is not a feature of kidney-specific formulations for AKI. Therefore, options A and B (lower sodium and lower potassium) should be discussed in the teaching plan. Option C, higher phosphorus, is incorrect as kidney-specific formulas are not intended to be higher in phosphorus content for AKI patients.
5. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?
- A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
- B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
- C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
- D. 1 AM, while sleeping.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.
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