HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to go directly to the hospital for admission to labor and delivery for active labor
- B. Send the client home and instruct her to call the clinic when her contractions occur 5 minutes apart for one hour
- C. Tell the client to check into the hospital within the next hour for evaluation of possible urinary tract infection
- D. Advise the client to rest and hydrate, then return if contractions become more regular
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.
2. In attempting to develop a therapeutic relationship with a male adult client transferred to a psychiatric facility after being treated for a self-inflicted gunshot wound, which information is most important for the nurse to determine?
- A. The family's reaction to this situation
- B. The nurse's feelings about this client
- C. What losses the client recently experienced
- D. Why the client attempted to kill himself
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Understanding what losses the client recently experienced is crucial for the nurse in developing a therapeutic relationship. This information helps the nurse comprehend the client's emotional state, the potential triggers for the self-harm behavior, and provides insights into the client's current psychological and social challenges. Choice A, the family's reaction, may be important but is secondary to understanding the client's own experiences. Choice B, the nurse's feelings, is not relevant as the focus should be on the client. Choice D, why the client attempted suicide, is important but delving into recent losses can provide a broader context for the client's emotional distress and suicidal behavior.
3. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
4. Which assessment finding should indicate to the nurse that a client with arterial hypertension is experiencing a cardiac complication?
- A. Complaints of an occipital headache
- B. A palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally
- C. Complaints of shortness of breath on exertion
- D. A blood pressure of 160/90
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. This symptom is indicative of heart failure, a common cardiac complication of arterial hypertension. Shortness of breath on exertion is often due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because complaints of an occipital headache, a palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally, and a blood pressure of 160/90 do not specifically indicate a cardiac complication in a client with arterial hypertension.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer 15 grams of carbohydrate
- B. Administer a glucagon injection
- C. Provide a snack with protein
- D. Encourage the client to rest
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.
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