Nursing Elites

1. A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Tell the client to go directly to the hospital for admission to labor and delivery for active labor
• B. Send the client home and instruct her to call the clinic when her contractions occur 5 minutes apart for one hour
• C. Tell the client to check into the hospital within the next hour for evaluation of possible urinary tract infection
• D. Advise the client to rest and hydrate, then return if contractions become more regular

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the laboratory value that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy. PTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is specifically sensitive to heparin's anticoagulant effects. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation without increasing the risk of bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important laboratory values in other contexts, they are not specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. A client with a small bowel obstruction is experiencing frequent vomiting. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to provide to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is completing morning care for this client?

• A. Maintain a quiet environment
• B. Ensure the linens are clean and dry
• C. Place an air deodorizer in the room
• D. Measure all emesis accurately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Measure all emesis accurately.' When a client with a small bowel obstruction is experiencing frequent vomiting, measuring emesis accurately is crucial for monitoring fluid balance and preventing dehydration. Choice A, 'Maintain a quiet environment,' while important for patient comfort, is not as critical as accurately measuring emesis. Choices B and C, 'Ensure the linens are clean and dry' and 'Place an air deodorizer in the room,' focus on environmental factors that, although helpful, are not as essential as monitoring the client's fluid balance in this situation.

4. The nurse preceptor is orienting a new graduate nurse to the critical care unit. The preceptor asks the new graduate to state symptoms that most likely indicate the beginning of a shock state in a critically ill client. What findings should the new graduate nurse identify?

• A. Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output
• B. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils
• C. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis
• D. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia, mental status change, and low urine output are early signs of shock. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain perfusion, mental status changes can indicate decreased cerebral perfusion, and low urine output reflects poor renal perfusion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Warm skin, hypertension, and constricted pupils are not typical findings in the early stages of shock. Bradycardia, hypotension, and respiratory acidosis are more indicative of late-stage shock. Mottled skin, tachypnea, and hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in various conditions but are not specific early signs of shock.

5. A client newly diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid drinking milk
• B. Eat three large meals a day
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods
• D. Increase fluid intake with meals

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD is to avoid eating spicy foods. Spicy foods can exacerbate GERD symptoms by irritating the esophagus and increasing stomach acid production. Avoiding spicy foods can help reduce discomfort and prevent further irritation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking milk is not advised for GERD as it can trigger acid production. Eating three large meals a day can put pressure on the stomach, worsening symptoms. Increasing fluid intake with meals can lead to bloating and worsen GERD symptoms by causing the stomach to expand, pushing more acid into the esophagus.

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