HESI RN TEST BANK

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

A primigravida at term comes to the prenatal clinic and tells the nurse that she is having contractions every 5 min. The nurse monitors the client for one hour, using an external fetal monitor, and determines that the client’s contractions are 7 to 15 minutes apart, lasting 20 to 30 seconds, with mild intensity by palpation. What action should the nurse take?

    A. Tell the client to go directly to the hospital for admission to labor and delivery for active labor

    B. Send the client home and instruct her to call the clinic when her contractions occur 5 minutes apart for one hour

    C. Tell the client to check into the hospital within the next hour for evaluation of possible urinary tract infection

    D. Advise the client to rest and hydrate, then return if contractions become more regular

Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client should be instructed to call when contractions are 5 minutes apart for an hour to ensure she is in active labor before going to the hospital.

The client is being taught how to take alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis treatment. Which statement indicates that the client needs further teaching?

  • A. I should take this medication at bedtime
  • B. I will need to take this medication for at least 3 years
  • C. I should sit up for 30 minutes after taking the medication
  • D. I should take this medication with a full glass of water

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because taking Fosamax at bedtime is incorrect. It should be taken in the morning with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice B is correct; alendronate is typically taken for several years to treat osteoporosis. Choice C is correct as remaining upright for 30 minutes after taking Fosamax helps prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is also correct as taking alendronate with a full glass of water is necessary to ensure proper absorption.

The nurse observes a client in a wheelchair with a vest restraint in place. What nursing intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

  • A. Assess the need for continued restraint
  • B. Check the client for urinary incontinence
  • C. Determine skin integrity under the vest
  • D. Perform range-of-motion exercises on extremities

Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the need for continued restraint. This is the most important nursing intervention as it ensures the client's safety and autonomy. Checking for urinary incontinence (Choice B) may be important but is not the priority in this situation. Determining skin integrity under the vest (Choice C) is essential but not as crucial as assessing the need for continued restraint. Performing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for client mobility but not the priority when a restraint is in place.

In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client's B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?

  • A. Measure the client's oxygen saturation before taking further action
  • B. Administer a PRN dose of nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)
  • C. Administer the dose of furosemide as scheduled
  • D. Hold the dose of furosemide until contacting the healthcare provider

Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose of furosemide is appropriate when a client with heart failure has an elevated BNP level. BNP elevation indicates fluid overload, and furosemide is a diuretic that helps in reducing excess fluid. Measuring the client's oxygen saturation (Choice A) is not directly related to addressing fluid overload. Administering nitroglycerin (Choice B) is not indicated for managing elevated BNP levels. Holding the furosemide dose (Choice D) would delay appropriate treatment for fluid overload.

A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

  • A. Bladder distention
  • B. Serum albumin level
  • C. Abdominal girth
  • D. Breath sounds

Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

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