Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Maintain the client on bed rest
• B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the legs
• C. Encourage early ambulation
• D. Massage the legs daily

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to encourage early ambulation. Early ambulation helps prevent DVT by promoting circulation, reducing stasis, and preventing blood clot formation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (Choice A) would increase the risk of DVT due to decreased mobility. Applying warm, moist compresses to the legs (Choice B) can be beneficial for other conditions but does not directly prevent DVT. Massaging the legs daily (Choice D) can dislodge a blood clot, leading to serious complications in a client at risk for DVT.

2. The nurse is planning care for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Reposition the client every 2 hours
• B. Cleanse the ulcer with normal saline
• C. Apply a moisture-retentive dressing
• D. Measure the ulcer's depth and diameter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the ulcer's depth and diameter. This intervention is crucial as it helps monitor healing progress and evaluate the effectiveness of the care plan. Measuring the ulcer provides valuable information about the wound's improvement or deterioration. Repositioning the client every 2 hours (Choice A) is important for preventing further skin breakdown but may not be the priority in this case. Cleansing the ulcer with normal saline (Choice B) is essential for wound care but not the most crucial intervention at this stage. Applying a moisture-retentive dressing (Choice C) can promote healing, but assessing the ulcer's dimensions is more critical for monitoring progress.

3. A client who is bleeding after a vaginal delivery receives a prescription for methylergonovine (Methergine) 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. The medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml. What is the maximum dosage in mg that the nurse should administer to this client?

• A. Encourage oral fluids as tolerated
• B. Decrease oral intake to 200 ml
• C. Allow the client to have exactly 400 ml oral intake
• D. Limit oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The maximum dosage the nurse should administer is 2 mg. This is calculated based on the prescription of 0.4 mg IM every 2 hours, not to exceed 5 doses. Since the medication is available in ampules containing 0.2 mg/ml, the nurse should administer 2 ml (0.2 mg/ml x 10 ml) for each dose, not exceeding 5 doses. Therefore, the nurse should limit the client's oral intake to 900 to 1,000 ml, to avoid exceeding the maximum dosage of 2 mg.

4. The nurse is assessing a client who has a new cast on the left arm. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Client reports itching under the cast
• B. Client reports pain at the cast site
• C. Client reports swelling of the fingers
• D. Client reports warmth over the casted area

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Swelling of the fingers can indicate compromised circulation, which is a serious concern in a client with a new cast. It could suggest the development of compartment syndrome, a condition where increased pressure within the muscles can lead to impaired blood flow. This can result in tissue damage and should be addressed promptly. Itching under the cast, pain at the cast site, and warmth over the casted area are common findings after cast application and may not necessarily indicate an urgent issue requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

5. A client receiving amlodipine (Norvasc), a calcium channel blocker, develops 1+ pitting edema around the ankles. It is most important for the nurse to obtain what additional client data?

• A. Bladder distention
• B. Serum albumin level
• C. Abdominal girth
• D. Breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D. Breath sounds.' When a client receiving amlodipine develops edema, it is crucial to assess for potential heart failure, a side effect of the medication. Checking breath sounds helps in identifying any signs of pulmonary edema, a severe complication of heart failure. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context. Bladder distention could be associated with urinary issues, serum albumin level with malnutrition or liver disease, and abdominal girth with gastrointestinal problems, none of which directly relate to the potential heart failure induced by amlodipine.

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