Nursing Elites

1. An 80-year-old male client with multiple chronic health problems becomes disoriented, agitated, and combative 24 hours after being admitted to the hospital. What nursing intervention is most important to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Request a psychiatric consultation for the client.
• B. Reorient the client frequently to time, place, and person.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medications to reduce agitation.
• D. Obtain an order for a sitter to stay with the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reorienting the client frequently is the most important nursing intervention in this scenario. It helps reduce confusion and agitation, which are common symptoms of acute delirium in hospitalized elderly clients. Requesting a psychiatric consult (choice A) may be necessary if the reorientation does not improve the client's condition or if there are underlying psychiatric concerns, but reorientation should be attempted first. Administering antipsychotic medications (choice C) should not be the initial intervention as they can have adverse effects in elderly individuals. Obtaining a sitter (choice D) may provide support but does not directly address the client's disorientation and agitation.

2. A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider before the procedure?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
• B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum calcium of 8 mg/dL
• D. Serum bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high and should be reported before hemodialysis to prevent cardiac complications. High potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Serum creatinine (Choice A) is elevated in renal dysfunction but not the most critical value to report before hemodialysis. Serum calcium (Choice C) and serum bicarbonate (Choice D) levels are within normal limits and are not immediate concerns before hemodialysis.

3. A client with severe COPD is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client's oxygen saturation level drops to 88% during ambulation. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Instruct the client to rest until the oxygen saturation improves.
• C. Discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe more deeply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's oxygen saturation level dropping during ambulation indicates an inadequate oxygen supply. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue ambulation and return the client to bed. This helps stabilize the oxygen level by reducing the oxygen demand placed on the client during physical activity. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing the underlying issue of oxygen saturation dropping may not be effective. Instructing the client to rest is not enough to address the immediate need for stabilization of oxygen levels. Encouraging the client to breathe more deeply may not be sufficient to overcome the oxygen saturation drop caused by inadequate oxygen supply during ambulation.

4. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/7.50 mg. His vital signs are elevated from the previous hour: temperature 97.8 F, heart rate 102 beats per minute, respiration 20 breaths per minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left leg is larger than the right. Preoperatively, clopidogrel was prescribed for a history of previous peripheral stents. Another nurse is holding manual pressure on the femoral arterial access site which may be leaking into the abdomen. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. The surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Immediate evaluation by the surgeon is necessary due to the possibility of an internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition. Choice A is incorrect as lung status and oxygen saturation are not the priority in this situation. Choice C is not relevant to the current urgent issue. Choice D, while providing additional history, is not pertinent to the immediate concern of a potential internal hemorrhage post angioplasty and stent placement.

5. When obtaining a rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, which action is most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Hold the thermometer in place.
• B. Place the disposable pad under the buttocks.
• C. Instruct the client to breathe deeply.
• D. Return the probe to the charger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When obtaining a rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, holding the thermometer in place is crucial. This action ensures accurate temperature measurement and prevents injury to the client. Option B, placing a disposable pad under the buttocks, is not the most important action; it may enhance comfort but does not impact the accuracy of the temperature reading. Option C, instructing the client to breathe deeply, is irrelevant to obtaining a rectal temperature. Option D, returning the probe to the charger, is an incorrect action after temperature measurement.

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