HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Headache
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.
2. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has become combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
- A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
- B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
- C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
- D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms described, including recurrent vomiting and becoming combative after taking vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin, indicate a potential overdose or a serious condition. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation in the emergency room is crucial. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending to withhold food and fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate in this urgent situation. Suggesting deep breathing (Choice D) does not address the seriousness of the symptoms and the need for immediate medical attention.
3. The nurse needs to add a medication to a liter of 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) that is already infusing into a client. At what location should the nurse inject the medication?
- A. Medication port
- B. IV drip chamber
- C. Y-site connector
- D. At the hub of the IV catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the medication port. When adding medication to an already infusing IV solution, it should be done through the medication port to ensure direct delivery into the bloodstream without interrupting the primary IV line. Injecting the medication into the IV drip chamber, Y-site connector, or at the hub of the IV catheter can lead to dilution, inaccurate dosing, or potential blockages in the IV line, which can compromise the effectiveness of the medication and patient safety.
4. A 60-year-old female client with a positive family history of ovarian cancer has developed an abdominal mass and is being evaluated for possible ovarian cancer. Her Papanicolau (Pap) smear results are negative. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Further evaluation involving surgery may be needed
- B. A pelvic exam is also needed before cancer is ruled out
- C. Pap smear evaluation should be continued every six months
- D. One additional negative Pap smear in six months is needed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a 60-year-old female client with a family history of ovarian cancer and an abdominal mass, further evaluation involving surgery may be needed to rule out ovarian cancer. The presence of an abdominal mass raises suspicion for a possible malignancy, and a negative Pap smear result does not rule out ovarian cancer. A pelvic exam alone may not provide sufficient information to confirm or rule out ovarian cancer. Continuing Pap smear evaluations every six months or waiting for one additional negative Pap smear in six months is not appropriate in this scenario, as the abdominal mass requires immediate attention and further evaluation.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with shortness of breath and chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?
- A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B. Chest X-ray
- C. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
- D. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An ECG should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client presenting with shortness of breath and chest pain. This test helps in evaluating the electrical activity of the heart and can identify signs of myocardial infarction or other cardiac issues. Choice B, Chest X-ray, may be ordered after the ECG to assess for pulmonary conditions like pneumonia or effusions. Choice C, Pulmonary function tests (PFTs), are used to evaluate lung function and are not the primary diagnostic tests for a client with symptoms of cardiac origin. Choice D, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), may provide information about oxygenation but are not the initial test indicated for a client with suspected cardiac issues.
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