Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Headache
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.

2. The nurse who is working on a surgical unit receives a change of shift report on a group of clients for the upcoming shift. A client with which condition requires the most immediate attention by the nurse?

• A. Gunshot wound three hours ago with dark drainage of 2 cm noted on the dressing.
• B. Mastectomy 2 days ago with 50 ml bloody drainage noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
• C. Collapsed lung after a fall 8 hours ago with 100 ml blood in the chest tube collection container
• D. Abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on dressing who has fever and chills.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client who had an abdominal-perineal resection 2 days ago with no drainage on the dressing but is presenting with fever and chills requires immediate attention. This presentation raises concerns for peritonitis, a serious complication that necessitates prompt assessment and intervention to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an immediate risk for a life-threatening condition like peritonitis, making them lower priority compared to choice D.

3. A young adult male is admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His pH is 7.25, HCO3 is 12 mEq/L, and blood glucose is 310 mg/dl. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Infuse sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline)
• B. Prepare an emergency dose of glucagon
• C. Determine the last time the client ate
• D. Check urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In DKA, restoring fluid balance with sodium chloride is a priority to address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances present in this condition. Choice B, preparing an emergency dose of glucagon, is incorrect because DKA is characterized by insulin deficiency, not glucagon deficiency. Choice C, determining the last time the client ate, is not the immediate priority in managing DKA. Choice D, checking urine for ketone bodies with a dipstick, may help confirm the diagnosis of DKA but is not the most critical intervention at this time.

4. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?
• B. His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease
• C. Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?
• D. You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.

5. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously to a client, what finding requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Stridor
• B. Nausea
• C. Headache
• D. Pruritus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stridor. Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction. When administering ceftriaxone sodium (Rocephin) intravenously, if the client develops stridor, it is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to maintain a patent airway. Nausea, headache, and pruritus are important to assess, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and would not require the same level of urgent intervention as stridor.

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