HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Increased fatigue
- B. Headache
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low urine output
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.
2. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?
- B. His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease
- C. Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?
- D. You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Serum glucose level
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Prothrombin time (PT)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: International Normalized Ratio (INR). The INR should be closely monitored in a client with atrial fibrillation to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy with warfarin. Monitoring the INR helps to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent complications such as thrombosis or bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in this scenario. While serum glucose levels are important in assessing metabolic status, and white blood cell count and prothrombin time are important indicators for other conditions, they are not the primary focus when a client with atrial fibrillation presents with confusion.
4. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?
- A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
- B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
- C. Take acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F.
- D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.
5. A 75-year-old female client is admitted to the orthopedic unit following an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. On the second postoperative day, the client becomes confused and repeatedly asks the nurse where she is. What information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. History of alcohol use
- B. Current medication list
- C. Baseline cognitive status
- D. Family history of dementia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: History of alcohol use. In this scenario, obtaining the history of alcohol use is crucial as it could indicate withdrawal, which might explain the client's confusion. Alcohol withdrawal can lead to symptoms such as confusion, agitation, and disorientation. While knowing the current medication list (choice B) is important for overall patient care, in this case, alcohol withdrawal is a more likely cause of the confusion. Baseline cognitive status (choice C) is valuable for comparison but may not directly explain the sudden confusion. Family history of dementia (choice D) is less relevant in this acute situation compared to the potential immediate impact of alcohol withdrawal.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access