a client with a history of chronic kidney disease ckd is receiving erythropoietin therapy which assessment finding is most concerning
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HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning assessment finding. Erythropoietin can increase red blood cell production, leading to thicker blood, which in turn can elevate blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure in this scenario may indicate worsening hypertension, which requires prompt intervention to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or further kidney damage. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD patients and can be expected with erythropoietin therapy. Headache (choice B) can occur but is less concerning than elevated blood pressure in this context. Low urine output (choice D) is a significant finding in CKD, but in a client receiving erythropoietin, elevated blood pressure takes precedence due to its potential for immediate adverse effects.

2. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to gentamicin therapy. The client's serum blood potassium is elevated. Which finding requires immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Anuria for the last 12 hours. Anuria, the absence of urine output, indicates complete kidney failure and is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. In acute kidney injury (AKI), the kidneys are unable to filter waste from the blood effectively, leading to a buildup of toxins and electrolyte imbalances like elevated blood potassium levels. Tachycardia and hypotension (choice B) can be seen in AKI but do not reflect the urgency of addressing anuria. Decreased urine output (choice C) is concerning but not as critical as the absence of urine production. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice D) are indicative of kidney dysfunction but do not demand immediate action as anuria does.

4. A client with rapid respirations and audible rhonchi is admitted to the intensive care unit because of a pulmonary embolism (PE). Low-flow oxygen by nasal cannula and weight-based heparin protocol are initiated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Evaluating blood clotting factors daily is crucial when a client is on heparin therapy to monitor for potential complications such as bleeding or clotting issues. This monitoring helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range and reduces the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Encouraging incentive spirometry use is beneficial for preventing atelectasis and improving lung function, but in this scenario, monitoring blood clotting factors takes precedence. Administering pain medication as needed is important for the client's comfort but is not the priority in managing a pulmonary embolism. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to heparin therapy, but evaluating blood clotting factors provides more specific information on the client's response to treatment.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation who is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The INR should be closely monitored in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) to assess the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps determine if the client's blood is clotting appropriately. While prothrombin time (PT) is related to warfarin therapy, the INR is a more precise measure. Hemoglobin level and serum sodium level are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy.

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