HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?
- A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
- C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
- D. Promote the elimination of albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.
2. A client with newly diagnosed peptic ulcer disease is being taught about lifestyle modifications. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should avoid eating spicy foods to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
- B. ‘I should take my antacids regularly, even if I don’t have symptoms.’
- C. ‘I should avoid smoking to prevent exacerbation of my symptoms.’
- D. ‘I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer.’
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The corrected question assesses the client's understanding of lifestyle modifications for peptic ulcer disease. Choice D, 'I should avoid drinking alcohol to prevent irritation of my ulcer,' is the correct answer. This statement demonstrates that the client has a good grasp of the teaching provided, as alcohol can indeed irritate peptic ulcers. Choices A, B, and C are all accurate statements that reflect appropriate understanding of managing peptic ulcer disease and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
3. A woman who takes pyridostigmine for myasthenia gravis (MG) arrives at the emergency department complaining of extreme muscle weakness. Her adult daughter tells the nurse that since yesterday her mother has been unable to smile. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Uncontrollable drooling.
- B. Inability to raise voice.
- C. Tingling of extremities.
- D. Eyelid drooping.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uncontrollable drooling can be a sign of a myasthenic crisis, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Drooling indicates difficulty in swallowing, which can lead to aspiration and respiratory compromise. Inability to raise voice (choice B) and tingling of extremities (choice C) are not typically associated with myasthenic crisis. Although eyelid drooping (choice D) is a common symptom of myasthenia gravis, it is not as urgent as uncontrollable drooling in indicating a potential crisis.
4. A client with pneumonia has arterial blood gases levels at: pH 7.33; PaCO2 49 mm/Hg; HCO3 25 mEq/L; PaO2 95. What intervention should the nurse implement based on these results?
- A. Institute coughing and deep breathing protocols.
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation.
- D. Increase IV fluids to improve hydration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ABG results indicate respiratory acidosis due to an elevated PaCO2 (49 mm/Hg), indicating hypoventilation. The appropriate intervention for respiratory acidosis is to improve ventilation. Coughing and deep breathing protocols can help the client to effectively ventilate and improve gas exchange. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary in respiratory distress situations, but addressing the underlying cause of hypoventilation is crucial. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Choice C) are not the first-line interventions for uncomplicated respiratory acidosis. Increasing IV fluids (Choice D) does not directly address the respiratory acidosis present in this scenario.
5. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner before performing catheter care. The UAP rubs both hands thoroughly for 2 minutes while standing at the bedside. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage the UAP to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed.
- B. Explain that the hand rub can be completed in less than 2 minutes.
- C. Inform the UAP that handwashing helps to promote better asepsis.
- D. Determine why the UAP was not wearing gloves in the client's room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Explaining that hand rubs can be effective with less time allows the UAP to perform the procedure more efficiently while maintaining asepsis. Choice A is incorrect because the UAP does not need to remain in the client's room until the procedure is completed. Choice C is incorrect as the UAP was using an alcohol-based gel hand cleaner, not handwashing. Choice D is incorrect as the scenario does not mention any issue with glove usage, so it is not relevant to the situation at hand.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access