HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is placed on a protein-restricted diet. Which nutritional goal supports this dietary change?
- A. Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN)
- B. Decrease the risk of hyperkalemia
- C. Promote healing of injured nephrons
- D. Promote the elimination of albumin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce production of urea nitrogen (BUN). A protein-restricted diet is essential for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea nitrogen, as the kidneys cannot effectively excrete it. This helps in managing the accumulation of waste products in the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not directly related to a protein-restricted diet but focuses on managing potassium levels. Choice C is not a direct nutritional goal of a protein-restricted diet but aims at supporting kidney function. Choice D is not a target of a protein-restricted diet but relates more to managing protein loss in the urine.
2. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section (C-Section), the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Ensure preoperative lab results are available
- B. Start prescribed IV with lactated Ringer's
- C. Inform the anesthesia care provider
- D. Contact the client's obstetrician
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to inform the anesthesia care provider. The patient's ingestion of coffee violates the NPO (nothing by mouth) guidelines before surgery, which increases the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Informing the anesthesia care provider promptly allows for appropriate assessment and decision-making regarding the patient's anesthesia plan. Ensuring preoperative lab results, starting an IV, or contacting the obstetrician can be important steps but addressing the NPO violation and its implications on anesthesia safety take precedence.
3. In a client with liver cirrhosis admitted with ascites and jaundice, which laboratory value is most concerning to the nurse?
- A. Serum albumin of 3.0 g/dl
- B. Bilirubin of 3.0 mg/dl
- C. Ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl
- D. Prothrombin time of 18 seconds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated ammonia level of 80 mcg/dl is most concerning in a client with liver cirrhosis because it may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication. Serum albumin, though low, is expected in cirrhosis and contributes to ascites. Bilirubin elevation is common in liver disease but may not be the most concerning in this case. Prothrombin time is typically prolonged in liver disease but may not be as acute as an elevated ammonia level suggesting hepatic encephalopathy.
4. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is experiencing chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- C. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen therapy is the priority intervention in managing chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. Oxygen helps improve oxygenation to the heart muscle, which is crucial in reducing further damage. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important to assess for changes indicative of myocardial infarction, but providing oxygen takes precedence as it directly addresses the physiological need for oxygen. Administering nitroglycerin and aspirin are important interventions but are typically implemented after oxygen therapy to address vasodilation and antiplatelet effects, respectively.
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