Nursing Elites

1. Why is it important to control blood glucose levels in type 2 DM?

• A. Hypertension and kidney disease.
• B. Weight gain and obesity.
• C. Improved wound healing.
• D. Decreased cholesterol levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Controlling blood glucose levels in type 2 DM is crucial to prevent complications. High blood glucose levels can lead to hypertension and kidney disease, as seen in diabetic nephropathy and diabetic nephropathy. These are common complications of uncontrolled diabetes. Weight gain and obesity (choice B) are influenced by factors such as diet and physical activity rather than blood glucose levels. Improved wound healing (choice C) is not directly related to blood glucose control but can be affected by it indirectly. Decreased cholesterol levels (choice D) are not a direct consequence of high blood glucose levels and are more related to dietary and lifestyle factors.

2. A male client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a highly elevated glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb) test result. In discussing the result with the client, nurse Sharmaine would be most accurate in stating:

• A. The test needs to be repeated following a 12-hour fast.
• B. It appears you aren't following the prescribed diabetic diet.
• C. It tells us about your sugar control for the last 3 months.
• D. Your insulin regimen needs to be significantly altered.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. This test is used to assess long-term blood sugar control in individuals with diabetes. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for an HbA1c test. Choice B is judgmental and not supported by the information provided. Choice D is not the most accurate statement to make based on the HbA1c result; adjusting insulin would depend on a more comprehensive assessment of the client's overall diabetes management.

3. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin-dependent diabetic, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. He has been febrile since admission. His daily insulin requirement is 24 units of NPH. Every morning Albert is given NPH insulin at 0730. Meals are served at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The nurse expects that the NPH insulin will reach its maximum effect (peak) between the hours of:

• A. 1130 and 1330.
• B. 1330 and 1930.
• C. 1530 and 2130.
• D. 1730 and 2330.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: NPH insulin typically peaks 4-12 hours after administration, so a peak between 1530 and 2130 would be expected. Choice A (1130 and 1330) is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice B (1330 and 1930) falls within the possible peak period but is not as accurate as choice C. Choice D (1730 and 2330) is too late for the peak effect of NPH insulin based on the typical peak timing.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is being educated on the importance of foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Soak your feet daily to maintain cleanliness.
• B. Wear tight-fitting shoes to protect your feet.
• C. Apply lotion between your toes to prevent dryness.
• D. Inspect your feet daily for any cuts or sores.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to inspect their feet daily for any cuts or sores. This is crucial for individuals with diabetes as they are at a higher risk of developing foot problems. Soaking feet daily can lead to skin breakdown and infections, making choice A incorrect. Tight-fitting shoes can cause pressure points and increase the risk of foot injuries, so choice B is incorrect. Applying lotion between the toes can create a moist environment, increasing the risk of fungal infections, making choice C incorrect.

5. A healthcare professional reviews a client's electrolyte laboratory report and notes that the potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the healthcare professional note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?

• A. U waves
• B. Absent P waves
• C. Elevated T waves
• D. Elevated ST segment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: U waves. A low potassium level (hypokalemia) can manifest as U waves on an ECG. U waves are small, extra deflections seen after the T wave and may indicate cardiac irritability. Absent P waves (Choice B) are associated with conditions like atrial fibrillation. Elevated T waves (Choice C) can be seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Elevated ST segment (Choice D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction.

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