Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

• A. Apply an abdominal binder.
• B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
• C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
• D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

2. A woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative is admitted to labor and delivery reporting abdominal cramping. She is placed on strict bedrest, and the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern are monitored with an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to determine dilatation.
• B. Determine fetal position by performing Leopold maneuvers.
• C. Assess the fetal heart rate and client's contraction pattern.
• D. Confirm Rh and Coombs status for Rho(D) immunoglobulin administration.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to assess the fetal heart rate and the client's contraction pattern. The presence of a large amount of bright red vaginal bleeding in a woman at 36-weeks' gestation who is Rh negative raises concerns about the well-being of the fetus. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and contraction pattern will provide crucial information about fetal status and help determine the appropriate course of action to ensure the safety and health of both the mother and the baby.

3. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

4. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor serum glucose for adjustment in the infusion rate of regular insulin (Novolin R).
• B. Determine the child’s compliance schedule for subcutaneous NPH insulin (Humulin N).
• C. Demonstrate to the parents how to program an insulin pen for daily glucose regulation.
• D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the use of insulin detemir (Levemir Flex Pen).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.

5. A client at 32 weeks gestation is hospitalized with severe pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and magnesium sulfate is prescribed to control the symptoms. Which assessment finding indicates the therapeutic drug level has been achieved?

• A. 4+ reflexes
• B. Urinary output of 50 ml per hour
• C. A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16
• D. A decreased body temperature

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate from 24 to 16 indicates that magnesium sulfate is effectively reducing central nervous system irritability, a desired therapeutic effect. This decrease in respiratory rate signifies that the drug has reached a therapeutic level to control symptoms of severe pregnancy-induced hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because 4+ reflexes, urinary output, and body temperature are not direct indicators of achieving a therapeutic level of magnesium sulfate for controlling PIH symptoms.

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