the nurse is caring for a postpartal client who is exhibiting symptoms of spinal headache 24 hours following delivery of a normal newborn prior to the
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

1. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

2. A 6-year-old child is diagnosed with rheumatic fever and demonstrates associated chorea (sudden aimless movements of the arms and legs). Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chorea, or sudden aimless movements associated with rheumatic fever, is temporary in nature and will eventually disappear on its own. It is important for the nurse to reassure the parents that these movements are part of the condition and typically resolve over time without the need for permanent lifestyle changes or strict discipline. Providing accurate information and reassurance to the parents can help alleviate concerns and promote understanding of the condition's course. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because muscle tension, permanent lifestyle changes, and consistent discipline are not directly related to the resolution of chorea in rheumatic fever.

3. During a well-child visit for their child, one of the parents with an autosomal dominant disorder tells the nurse, 'We don’t plan on having any more children, since the next child is likely to inherit this disorder.' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confirming that there is a 50% chance of their future children inheriting the disorder is the correct response in this situation. Autosomal dominant disorders have a 50% chance of being passed on to each child. Providing accurate genetic counseling is essential to help the parents make informed decisions about family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because the risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant disorder remains at 50% for each child regardless of the number of children the couple has. Choice B is not appropriate as it does not provide helpful information or support to the parents. Choice C is misleading because autosomal dominant disorders follow a specific inheritance pattern and are not sex-linked.

4. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

5. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

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