the nurse is caring for a postpartal client who is exhibiting symptoms of spinal headache 24 hours following delivery of a normal newborn prior to the
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HESI RN

HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

1. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

2. A primipara patient asks what is the best pet to have at home to share time with. Which pet is not recommended?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Birds are not recommended as pets for a primipara patient due to potential health risks associated with bird droppings, feathers, and dander. These factors may pose a risk to the newborn's health and the mother's well-being. Additionally, some birds can be loud, which may disrupt the baby's sleep patterns. Therefore, it is advisable for primipara patients to consider pets like dogs, cats, or fish as they generally have lower associated risks in a household with a newborn. Dogs, cats, and fish are relatively safer options compared to birds for primipara patients due to their lower risk of transmitting infections, allergens, or causing disturbances that could affect the newborn or the mother.

3. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

4. When assessing a child with HIV, which system should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a child with HIV, it is essential to prioritize assessing the respiratory system first. Children with HIV are more susceptible to respiratory infections and complications, such as pneumonia, due to their weakened immune system. Identifying any respiratory issues early on can help in prompt intervention and management, thus improving outcomes for the child.

5. A 6-year-old with heart failure (HF) gained 2 pounds in the last 24 hours. Which intervention is more important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing bilateral lung sounds is crucial in this scenario as it can provide essential information about potential fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating worsening heart failure. This assessment can guide immediate interventions to prevent further deterioration in the patient's condition.

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