Nursing Elites

1. When planning a scoliosis screening clinic, which age group should be included?

• A. early adolescent girls
• B. late adolescent boys
• C. 7-10 year old boys
• D. preschoolers of both genders

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is early adolescent girls. Scoliosis is most commonly diagnosed during early adolescence, with girls being more affected than boys. Including early adolescent girls in the screening clinic aligns with the age group that is at higher risk for scoliosis. Late adolescent boys (choice B) are less likely to develop scoliosis compared to early adolescent girls. 7-10 year old boys (choice C) are typically younger than the age group where scoliosis is commonly diagnosed. Preschoolers of both genders (choice D) are too young for scoliosis screening as the condition usually manifests during adolescence.

2. During a follow-up visit, a client with diabetes reports difficulty maintaining a healthy diet. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Provide the client with meal planning resources
• B. Explore the client's dietary habits and challenges
• C. Refer the client to a nutritionist
• D. Educate the client on the importance of a healthy diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with diabetes reports difficulty in maintaining a healthy diet, the initial action should be to explore the client's dietary habits and challenges. By doing so, the nurse can identify specific issues and barriers the client faces, which is crucial in developing a personalized and effective intervention plan. Providing meal planning resources (Choice A) can be beneficial later but should come after understanding the client's unique situation. Referring the client to a nutritionist (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases but should follow an assessment of the client's current challenges. Simply educating the client on the importance of a healthy diet (Choice D) does not address the specific difficulties the client is facing and may not lead to sustainable behavior change.

3. A client with a history of seizures is admitted with status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Diazepam (Valium)
• C. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• D. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, the initial medication of choice is a benzodiazepine to rapidly terminate the seizure activity. Lorazepam (Ativan) is preferred over Diazepam (Valium) due to its longer duration of action and lower risk of respiratory depression. Phenytoin (Dilantin) and Carbamazepine (Tegretol) are not the first-line agents for the acute treatment of status epilepticus, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with unilateral leg swelling. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Elevate the affected leg on a pillow.
• B. Apply a warm compress to the affected leg.
• C. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected leg.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and unilateral leg swelling is to elevate the affected leg on a pillow. Elevating the affected leg helps reduce swelling and pain by promoting venous return and preventing stasis of blood flow. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) may increase inflammation and worsen the condition. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) and encouraging ambulation (Choice D) can dislodge a clot and lead to potential embolism, making these choices contraindicated in a client with DVT.

5. The nurse obtains a pulse rate of 89 beats/min for an infant before administering digoxin (Lanoxin). What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the medication.
• B. Hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider.
• C. Double the dose.
• D. Increase fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the medication and contact the healthcare provider. Bradycardia (pulse rate less than 100 beats/minute) is an early sign of digoxin toxicity. It is essential to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider to prevent potential adverse effects. Administering the medication (Choice A) could exacerbate the toxicity. Doubling the dose (Choice C) is inappropriate and dangerous. Increasing fluid intake (Choice D) is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of digoxin toxicity.

Similar Questions