Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

2. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

• A. How long has the client been taking the medication?
• B. Assess the client's dietary habits.
• C. Check for signs of infection.
• D. Evaluate the client's sleep pattern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When a client reports drowsiness while taking clonidine, the nurse should assess how long the client has been taking the medication. Drowsiness is a common side effect that can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine. By understanding the duration of medication use, the nurse can determine if the drowsiness is a temporary effect that may decrease over time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because assessing the client's dietary habits, checking for signs of infection, or evaluating the client's sleep pattern would not directly address the drowsiness associated with clonidine use.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider report before administering the medication?

• A. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute.
• B. Serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L.
• C. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
• D. Client reports seeing halos around lights.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seeing halos around lights is a classic symptom of digoxin toxicity, known as visual disturbances. This finding indicates an adverse effect of digoxin and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity, leading to life-threatening dysrhythmias or other complications. Apical pulse, serum potassium level, and blood pressure are important assessments when administering digoxin, but the presence of visual disturbances, such as seeing halos around lights, takes precedence due to its direct association with digoxin toxicity. Changes in these other parameters should also be noted and addressed, but they are not the priority when compared to a symptom directly linked to potential toxicity.

4. During a home visit, the nurse observes an elderly client with disabilities slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. provide the client with 4 ounces of orange juice
• B. call 911 to summon emergency assistance
• C. check the client for lacerations or fractures
• D. assess the client's blood sugar level

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first after an elderly client with disabilities slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess the extent of injuries and provide appropriate medical attention promptly. Option A, providing orange juice, is not a priority in this situation and does not address the potential injuries. While calling 911 (Option B) may be necessary, assessing for immediate injuries takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood sugar level (Option D) is not the immediate priority after a fall unless there is a specific indication or suspicion of hypoglycemia.

5. The client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will use a soft toothbrush and an electric razor.
• C. I will keep all appointments for blood tests.
• D. I will avoid participating in contact sports.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because participating in contact sports can increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a client receiving warfarin therapy. Warfarin is a blood thinner, and activities with a higher risk of injury should be avoided to prevent bleeding complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements for a client on warfarin therapy. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain consistent anticoagulation levels, using a soft toothbrush and an electric razor reduces the risk of bleeding gums and cuts, and keeping appointments for blood tests ensures proper monitoring of the client's international normalized ratio (INR) levels.

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