Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma is admitted with shortness of breath. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Expiratory wheezes.
• B. Increased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of breath sounds.
• D. Frequent coughing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Absence of breath sounds. This finding is concerning in a client with asthma as it may indicate a severe asthma exacerbation, airway obstruction, or pneumothorax, all of which require immediate intervention. Absence of breath sounds suggests a lack of airflow in the lungs, which is a critical sign that should prompt immediate action. Expiratory wheezes (choice A) are common in asthma and may not warrant immediate intervention unless severe. An increased respiratory rate (choice B) is expected in a client with asthma experiencing shortness of breath, but it does not indicate an immediate threat to the airway. Frequent coughing (choice D) is a common symptom in asthma exacerbations but does not signify an immediate need for intervention as it can be managed with appropriate asthma treatments.

2. The healthcare professional is developing a community health program to address the high rates of childhood asthma in a neighborhood. Which intervention should the healthcare professional prioritize?

• A. conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers
• B. distributing asthma education materials at schools
• C. holding workshops on asthma management for parents
• D. partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize conducting home visits to identify asthma triggers as it is crucial for reducing asthma attacks in children. By identifying triggers in the home environment, interventions can be implemented to create a safer living space for children with asthma. This approach directly addresses the root cause of asthma exacerbations. Distributing asthma education materials at schools is beneficial for raising awareness but may not address individual triggers. Holding workshops on asthma management for parents is valuable for education but does not directly tackle trigger identification. Partnering with local healthcare providers to offer free asthma screenings focuses on detection rather than prevention through trigger identification.

3. The instructor is teaching a prenatal class about the importance of folic acid. Which outcome indicates that the teaching was effective?

• A. participants can list foods high in folic acid
• B. participants plan to take folic acid supplements daily
• C. participants understand the risks of folic acid deficiency
• D. participants demonstrate how to read nutrition labels for folic acid content

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because planning to take folic acid supplements daily is a proactive step towards preventing folic acid deficiency and reducing the risk of neural tube defects in pregnancy. While choice A is important for dietary knowledge, the direct action of taking supplements is more effective. Choice C, understanding the risks, is good but does not ensure action. Choice D, reading nutrition labels, is helpful but doesn't guarantee intake of folic acid.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing the laboratory results for a client who is admitted with renal failure and osteodystrophy. Which findings are consistent with this client's clinical picture?

• A. Serum potassium of 4.0 mEq/L and total calcium of 9 mg/dL.
• B. White blood cell count of 15,000/mm3.
• C. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL.
• D. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL and phosphorus of 2 mg/dL.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In renal failure and osteodystrophy, there is an alteration in serum electrolyte balance. The correct answer is serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L and total calcium of 6 mg/dL. Renal failure is associated with hyperkalemia (elevated serum potassium) and hypocalcemia (low total calcium levels). Hyperphosphatemia is also commonly seen in renal failure. Choice A is incorrect as it describes normal levels of serum potassium and total calcium. Choice B is unrelated to the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as it does not reflect the typical electrolyte imbalances seen in renal failure and osteodystrophy.

5. The healthcare provider is developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement first?

• A. conduct a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels
• B. develop educational materials on healthy eating and exercise
• C. partner with local schools to promote physical activity programs
• D. organize community events that encourage healthy lifestyle choices

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a survey to assess dietary habits and physical activity levels should be the initial step in developing a community outreach program to address childhood obesity. By gathering data through a survey, the healthcare provider can identify specific needs, preferences, and challenges within the community. This information is crucial for designing tailored interventions that are more likely to be effective. Developing educational materials (Choice B) can come after understanding the community's needs through the survey. Partnering with local schools (Choice C) and organizing community events (Choice D) are important strategies but should be planned based on the data obtained from the survey to ensure relevance and impact.

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