Nursing Elites

1. During a home health visit, the nurse notices that an older male client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is wearing loose cloth slippers. The client reports that he cannot comfortably wear other shoes because his toenails get in the way. The nurse inspects the client's feet and finds long thick nails that curl down under some of the toes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. demonstrate proper foot care to the client and family
• B. have a home health aide assist the client with hygiene weekly
• C. schedule an appointment for the client with a podiatrist
• D. trim the client's toenails gradually over several visits

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Scheduling an appointment with a podiatrist is the most appropriate action in this scenario. For a client with long thick nails that curl under the toes, professional foot care by a podiatrist is necessary to prevent complications, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Demonstrating proper foot care (choice A) may not address the immediate need for nail trimming. Having a home health aide assist with hygiene weekly (choice B) may not be sufficient for managing the client's toenail issue effectively. Trimming the client's toenails gradually over several visits (choice D) should be performed by a professional like a podiatrist to avoid potential complications.

2. During a home visit, the nurse observes that a client with limited mobility has difficulty accessing the bathroom. What should the nurse do first?

• A. suggest the client install a bedside commode
• B. assist the client in modifying the home environment
• C. refer the client to an occupational therapist
• D. educate the client on mobility aids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to suggest that the client installs a bedside commode. This option provides an immediate solution to the client's difficulty accessing the bathroom. While modifying the home environment (Choice B) and referring the client to an occupational therapist (Choice C) are important steps, suggesting a bedside commode addresses the immediate need efficiently. Educating the client on mobility aids (Choice D) can be beneficial but may not be the most urgent action required in this scenario.

3. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
• B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL is an indicator of effective erythropoietin therapy as it shows an increase in red blood cell production. Reticulocyte count (choice B) reflects the bone marrow's response to anemia but does not directly confirm the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Blood pressure (choice C) and serum ferritin level (choice D) are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy for chronic kidney disease.

4. A homeless client with alcohol dependency will be dismissed from the emergency department in 24 hours. The nurse notes that a tuberculin skin test was prescribed by the healthcare provider. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement prior to discharge?

• A. Identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read
• B. Give the client written information about the tuberculosis test
• C. Determine if the client understands the purpose of the tuberculin test
• D. Explain to the client results should be read between 48 and 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important intervention for the nurse to implement prior to the discharge of a homeless client with alcohol dependency who had a tuberculin skin test prescribed is to identify how the client will follow-up to have the results read. This is crucial to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. Providing written information (Choice B) is helpful but not as critical as ensuring the follow-up plan. Determining if the client understands the purpose of the test (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as ensuring the follow-up plan. Explaining when the results should be read (Choice D) is important, but the priority is to make sure the client has a plan in place for follow-up.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction. Which finding indicates that the client may have developed hypokalemia?

• A. Muscle weakness and cramps.
• B. Nausea and vomiting.
• C. Constipation.
• D. Increased blood pressure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness and cramps are characteristic signs of hypokalemia, a condition marked by low levels of potassium in the blood. Potassium is essential for proper muscle function, and its deficiency can lead to muscle weakness and cramps. In the context of a client with a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction, the loss of potassium through suctioning can contribute to the development of hypokalemia. Nausea and vomiting (choice B) are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypokalemia. Constipation (choice C) is not a typical finding of hypokalemia; instead, it can be a sign of other gastrointestinal problems. Increased blood pressure (choice D) is not a direct manifestation of hypokalemia; in fact, low potassium levels are more commonly associated with decreased blood pressure.

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