when measuring vital signs the nurse observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations what follow up action should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Quizlet Fundamentals

1. When measuring vital signs, the healthcare provider observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations. What follow-up action should the healthcare provider take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing a client using accessory neck muscles during respiration indicates respiratory distress. The priority action should be to measure oxygen saturation to assess the adequacy of oxygenation. This intervention provides crucial information about the client's respiratory status and helps guide further assessment and interventions.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which assessment finding is most indicative of this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epigastric pain that radiates to the back (A) is the hallmark assessment finding of acute pancreatitis. The pancreas lies retroperitoneally in the upper abdomen, so inflammation often causes severe epigastric pain that radiates through to the back. While abdominal pain with guarding (B), nausea and vomiting (C), and increased bowel sounds (D) can also be present in acute pancreatitis, they are less specific and may be seen in various other gastrointestinal conditions. Therefore, the most indicative finding for acute pancreatitis is epigastric pain that radiates to the back.

3. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because focusing on the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection is likely to reinforce his level of competence without sounding punitive. By acknowledging the client's correct performance during the self-injection, the nurse can boost the client's confidence, encouraging him to assume total responsibility for the daily injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly highlight the client's competence in self-administration, which may not be as effective in promoting independent self-care.

4. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hyperkalemia is receiving sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, leading to potassium removal from the body. Monitoring the serum potassium level allows the nurse to assess the effectiveness of this medication in lowering the elevated potassium levels. Serum sodium (A), calcium (C), and glucose (D) levels are not directly impacted by the action of sodium polystyrene sulfonate.

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