HESI RN
HESI Quizlet Fundamentals
1. When measuring vital signs, the healthcare provider observes that a client is using accessory neck muscles during respirations. What follow-up action should the healthcare provider take first?
- A. Determine pulse pressure
- B. Auscultate heart sounds
- C. Measure oxygen saturation
- D. Check for neck vein distention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing a client using accessory neck muscles during respiration indicates respiratory distress. The priority action should be to measure oxygen saturation to assess the adequacy of oxygenation. This intervention provides crucial information about the client's respiratory status and helps guide further assessment and interventions.
2. A client who has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is requesting information on the initial approach to a weight loss plan. Which action should the nurse recommend first?
- A. Plan low carbohydrate and high protein meals
- B. Engage in strenuous activity for an hour daily
- C. Keep a record of food and drinks consumed daily
- D. Participate in a group exercise class 3 times a week
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping a food diary is a good first step to understand eating habits before making any dietary or activity changes.
3. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?
- A. Increased oxygen saturation.
- B. Decreased respiratory rate.
- C. Absence of audible wheezing.
- D. Improved exercise tolerance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.
4. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What type of insulin should the nurse prepare to administer to this client?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. NPH insulin
- C. Lispro insulin
- D. Glargine insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL, which indicates severe hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should prepare to administer regular insulin (A). Regular insulin has a rapid onset of action and is the preferred choice for immediate correction of high blood glucose levels. NPH insulin (B), lispro insulin (C), and glargine insulin (D) are not suitable for the rapid correction of severe hyperglycemia.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who is experiencing fluid volume deficit (dehydration). Which intervention should the healthcare provider implement to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy?
- A. Monitor daily weights
- B. Assess skin turgor
- C. Evaluate blood pressure trends
- D. Check urine specific gravity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring daily weights is an accurate method to assess the effectiveness of fluid replacement therapy because changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance. Fluid volume deficit can be objectively evaluated by monitoring daily weights as it provides a more precise measurement of fluid status over time. Assessing skin turgor (choice B) is subjective and may not provide as accurate or measurable data as monitoring daily weights. Evaluating blood pressure trends (choice C) can give information about circulatory status but may not directly reflect fluid volume status. Checking urine specific gravity (choice D) can indicate the concentration of urine but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid balance like monitoring daily weights does.
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