Nursing Elites

1. What instruction should be provided for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has an order for contact precautions?

• A. Do not allow visitors until precautions are discontinued
• B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client’s body fluids
• C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
• D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the client's room. This precaution is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA and protect both the client and the healthcare worker from potential infection. Choice A is incorrect because visitors should not be restricted solely based on contact precautions. Choice B is incorrect as wearing sterile gloves is not necessary, standard precautions with regular gloves are sufficient. Choice C is incorrect because the client wearing a mask is not a standard practice for contact precautions; it is the healthcare worker who should take preventive measures.

2. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 75 ml/hr
• B. 150 ml/hr
• C. 225 ml/hr
• D. 300 ml/hr

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, set up a ratio proportion problem: 50 ml/20 min = x ml/60 min. Cross multiply to solve: 50 × 60 / 20 = 150 ml/hr. Therefore, the infusion pump should be set to deliver the secondary infusion at a rate of 150 ml/hr. Option A, 75 ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the correct calculation. Option C, 225 ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too high a rate based on the calculation. Option D, 300 ml/hr, is also incorrect as it does not align with the correct calculation for the infusion rate.

3. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Give analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule for pain management.
• B. Administer analgesic medication only when the pain becomes severe.
• C. Provide medication to keep the client comfortable without inducing sedation.
• D. Allow brief medication-free periods to promote comfort during daily activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most effective pain management strategy in hospice care involves administering analgesics on an around-the-clock schedule (A) to maintain pain control. Waiting until pain is severe before administering medication (B) is not ideal as it may lead to inadequate pain relief. While providing comfort is crucial in hospice care, sedation that prevents the client from interacting and experiencing their remaining time should be minimized. Therefore, keeping the client comfortable without excessive sedation (C) is preferred. Allowing for some periods without medication (D) may be appropriate but should not compromise the client's comfort and pain control.

4. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?

• A. Number of staff-induced injuries
• B. Client satisfaction survey
• C. Healthcare-associated infection rate
• D. Rate of needle-stick injuries by nurses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - Healthcare-associated infection rate. Acrylic nails can harbor bacteria, increasing the risk of healthcare-associated infections. By implementing a policy to remove acrylic nails, the goal is to reduce the infection rate. Monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate will provide a direct measure of the policy's effectiveness in achieving its intended outcome. This measure is more specific and directly related to the objective of reducing the risk of infections compared to the other choices.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

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