Nursing Elites

1. The client is being taught how to self-administer a subcutaneous injection. To ensure sterility of the procedure, which subject is most important for the instructor to include in the teaching plan?

• A. Hand washing before preparing the injection.
• B. Technique for drawing medication from a vial.
• C. Selection and rotation of injection sites.
• D. Proper disposal of injection equipment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To maintain the sterility of the procedure, it is crucial to teach the client the correct technique for drawing medication from a vial. This ensures that the medication remains sterile during preparation and administration. While hand washing, injection site selection, and equipment disposal are important aspects of injection safety, the key focus should be on maintaining the sterility of the medication itself to prevent infections and ensure the effectiveness of the treatment.

2. When discussing dietary preferences with a client adhering to a vegan diet, which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include in the dietary plan?

• A. Fiber
• B. Folate
• C. Ascorbic acid
• D. Vitamin B12

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient predominantly found in animal products. Individuals following a vegan diet, which excludes animal products, are at a higher risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. Encouraging the client to include a vitamin B12 supplement in their dietary plan is crucial to prevent deficiency-related health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not specific to addressing the deficiency that vegan diets may cause. Fiber, folate, and ascorbic acid are important but do not directly address the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency in vegan diets.

3. A client who has been on bed rest for several days is at risk for developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to ambulate as tolerated.
• B. Apply antiembolism stockings as prescribed.
• C. Elevate the client's legs on a pillow.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying antiembolism stockings as prescribed (B) is an effective intervention to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client on bed rest. While encouraging ambulation (A), elevating the legs (C), and performing passive range-of-motion exercises (D) are also beneficial, compression stockings are particularly effective in reducing the risk of DVT by promoting venous return and reducing stasis in the lower extremities.

4. A postoperative client has three different PRN analgesics prescribed for varying levels of pain. The nurse inadvertently administers a dose that is not within the prescribed parameters. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess for side effects of the medication.
• B. Document the client’s responses.
• C. Complete a medication error report.
• D. Determine if the pain was relieved.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario where a nurse administers a medication outside the prescribed parameters, the immediate action should be to assess the client for any potential side effects of the medication. This is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. By promptly assessing for side effects, the nurse can address any adverse reactions promptly and provide necessary interventions. Once the client's safety is ensured, documenting the client's responses, completing a medication error report, and assessing pain relief can follow as part of the broader response to the medication error. Choice B is not the first priority because the immediate concern is the potential harm from the incorrect dose. Choice C is also important but comes after ensuring the client's safety. Choice D focuses on the outcome rather than the immediate need to address any side effects of the medication.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Coarse crackles in the lungs.
• B. Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C).
• C. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• D. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

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