HESI RN
HESI Quizlet Fundamentals
1. A client is receiving intravenous (IV) fluids postoperatively. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider?
- A. The client reports pain at the IV site
- B. The client’s blood pressure is elevated
- C. The client has swelling at the IV site
- D. The client’s heart rate is irregular
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires stopping the IV infusion and notifying the healthcare provider. Infiltration occurs when the IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing swelling and potential damage. It is crucial to act promptly to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety.
2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Jugular vein distention.
- B. Crackles in the lungs.
- C. Peripheral edema.
- D. Hepatomegaly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In right-sided heart failure, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood to the lungs leads to fluid backup in the systemic circulation, resulting in peripheral edema (swelling in lower extremities). While jugular vein distention (A) and hepatomegaly (D) can also occur in right-sided heart failure, peripheral edema is a hallmark sign due to fluid retention. Crackles in the lungs (B) are more commonly associated with left-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the lungs.
3. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?
- A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
- B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
- C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.
4. What information should the nurse offer a client who uses herbal therapies to supplement their diet and manage common ailments about the general use of herbal supplements?
- A. Most herbs are toxic or carcinogenic and should only be used when proven effective.
- B. There is no evidence that herbs are safe or effective compared to conventional supplements in maintaining health.
- C. Herbs should be obtained from manufacturers with a history of quality control for their supplements.
- D. Herbal therapies may mask the symptoms of serious diseases, requiring frequent medical evaluations during use.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: It is essential for clients using herbal therapies to obtain herbs from manufacturers with a history of quality control for their supplements. This recommendation is crucial because quality control processes help in maintaining the purity and effectiveness of the herbal supplements. Option A is incorrect as it provides a negative and inaccurate generalization about herbs. Option B is also incorrect as there is existing evidence on the safety and efficacy of certain herbal supplements. Option D is not the most relevant information to offer initially to a client seeking advice on the general use of herbal supplements.
5. When assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair, what is the best action for the nurse to implement?
- A. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the client from the bed to a chair.
- B. Place a roller board under the client who is sitting on the side of the bed and slide the client to the chair.
- C. Lift the client out of bed to the chair with another staff member using a coordinated effort on the count of three.
- D. Place a transfer belt around the client, assist the client to stand, and pivot to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best action for the nurse when assisting an older client who can stand but not ambulate from the bed to a chair is to use a transfer belt. Placing a transfer belt around the client, assisting the client to stand, and pivoting to a chair that is placed at a right angle to the bed allows for a safe and controlled transfer. This method promotes patient independence while ensuring safety during the transfer process. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because using a mechanical lift may not be necessary for a client who can stand, using a roller board may not provide enough stability, and lifting the client with the help of another staff member may not be the safest option for the client's independence and safety.
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