Nursing Elites

1. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
• B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
• C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.

2. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction today?

• A. Use a metal eye shield on the operative eye during the day.
• B. Administer eye ointment before applying eye drops.
• C. Sexual activities may be resumed after returning home.
• D. Light housekeeping is safe to do, but avoid heavy lifting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who underwent cataract extraction is to advise them that light housekeeping is safe to do, but they should avoid heavy lifting. Heavy lifting can strain the surgical site and potentially lead to complications. Choice A is incorrect as a metal eye shield is usually recommended during sleep, not during the day. Choice B is incorrect because eye ointment should typically be administered after applying eye drops to prevent dilution of the medication. Choice C is incorrect as sexual activities should usually be avoided for a specific period post-surgery as advised by the healthcare provider.

3. Which clients are at risk for kidney problems? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Clients taking synthetic creatine supplements
• B. Clients taking metformin for diabetes mellitus
• C. Clients taking high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for chronic back pain
• D. Clients taking prenatal vitamins and using albuterol nebulizers

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients who take synthetic creatine supplements, metformin, and high-dose or long-term NSAIDs are at risk for kidney dysfunction. Synthetic creatine supplements can cause kidney damage, metformin may rarely cause lactic acidosis leading to renal impairment, and high-dose NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury. Prenatal vitamins and albuterol nebulizers are not known to significantly impact kidney function, thus do not pose a risk for kidney problems.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.

5. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?

• A. Aching pain in the left calf.
• B. Burning pain in the left calf.
• C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
• D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.

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