HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
- B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
- C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
- D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.
2. A client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is being cared for by a nurse. Which data warrants the most immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Serum sodium of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L)
- B. Dry skin with poor skin turgor
- C. Apical rate of 110 beats per minute
- D. Polyuria and excessive thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum sodium level of 185 mEq/L (185 mmol/L) is dangerously high and indicates severe dehydration, requiring immediate intervention to prevent neurological damage. The other options are not as critical as high serum sodium levels, which can lead to serious complications such as seizures, coma, and death if not promptly addressed. Dry skin with poor skin turgor and polyuria with excessive thirst are common findings in clients with Diabetes Insipidus and should be managed but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life. An apical heart rate of 110 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which could be related to dehydration but is not as urgent as addressing the severe hypernatremia.
3. A client who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization to rule out coronary occlusion should be informed by the nurse that:
- A. The procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department
- B. It is necessary to lie quietly on a hard x-ray table for about 4 hours
- C. The room is bright and well lit, and it is best to keep the eyes closed
- D. The client may have feelings of warmth or flushing during the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before cardiac catheterization, the nurse should inform the client that the procedure is performed in a darkened room in the radiology department, not the operating room. The client should expect to lie still on an x-ray table for the duration of the procedure, not necessarily for about 4 hours. Keeping the eyes closed is not necessary as the room is usually dimly lit. The client may experience sensations of warmth or flushing during the procedure due to catheter passage and dye injection, making choice D the correct answer.
4. After delegating care to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client who is prescribed habit training to manage incontinence, a nurse evaluates the UAP’s understanding. Which action indicates the UAP needs additional teaching?
- A. Toileting the client after breakfast
- B. Changing the client’s incontinence brief when wet
- C. Encouraging the client to drink fluids
- D. Recording the client’s incontinence episodes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action that indicates the UAP needs additional teaching is choice B, 'Changing the client’s incontinence brief when wet.' Habit training is a technique used to manage incontinence, and it is undermined by the use of absorbent incontinence briefs or pads. The nurse should re-educate the UAP on the technique of habit training, which involves scheduled toileting and promoting bladder control. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions that support the client’s care: toileting the client after meals, encouraging fluid intake, and documenting incontinence episodes are all important aspects of managing incontinence and monitoring the client's condition.
5. A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are accurate regarding PD? (Select all that apply.)
- A. You will not need vascular access to perform PD.
- B. There is less restriction of protein and fluids.
- C. You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the statements are accurate advantages of peritoneal dialysis (PD). Peritoneal dialysis does not require vascular access, offers less restriction on protein and fluids, and provides flexibility in scheduling for the exchanges. Choice A is correct because one of the advantages of PD is not needing vascular access, which is required in hemodialysis. Choice B is correct because PD allows for less dietary restriction compared to hemodialysis. Choice C is correct because PD allows for flexible scheduling of exchanges, providing more independence to the individual undergoing treatment.
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